KEAM 2024 Question Paper (June 8) is available for download here. Office of The Commissioner for Entrance Examinations (CEE Kerala) is going to conduct KEAM Engineering exam 2024 in CBT mode on June 8 in afternoon shift from 2 PM to 5 PM. KEAM Engineering 2024 Question Paper consists total of 150 questions carrying 4 mark each with negative marking of 1 for each incorrect answer. KEAM 2024 Question Paper includes Mathematics with 75 questions, Physics with 45 questions and Chemistry with 30 questions to be attempted in total of 180 minutes.
KEAM 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (June 8)
Question 1:
In the travelling plane wave equation given by \( y = A \sin \omega \left( \frac{x}{v} - t \right) \), where \( \omega \) is the angular velocity and \( v \) is the linear velocity. The dimension of \( \omega t \) is:
- (A) \( LM^\circ{T}^{-1} \)
- (B) \( \text{L}^\circ\text{M}^\circ\text{T}^\circ \)
- (C) \( \text{L}^\circ\text{M}^\circ\text{T} \)
- (D) \( LMT \)
- (E) \( LMT^{-2} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \text{L}^\circ\text{M}^\circ\text{T}^\circ \)
View Solution
Question 2:
Add \( 2.7 \times 10^{-5} \) to \( 4.5 \times 10^{-4} \) with due regard to significant figures
- (A) \( 4.8 \times 10^{-4} \)
- (B) \( 4.7 \times 10^{-5} \)
- (C) \( 4.8 \times 10^{-5} \)
- (D) \( 4.7 \times 10^{-4} \)
- (E) \( 5.0 \times 10^{-4} \)
Question 3:
The length of the second's hand in a watch is 1 cm. The magnitude of the change in the velocity of its tip in 30 seconds (in cm/s) is:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{30} \)
- (B) \( \frac{\sqrt{2\pi}}{30} \)
- (C) \( \frac{\sqrt{2\pi}}{15} \)
- (D) \( \frac{\pi}{15} \)
- (E) \( \frac{\pi}{30\sqrt{2}} \)
Question 4:
If the slope of the velocity-time graph of a moving particle is zero, then its acceleration is:
- (A) constant but not zero
- (B) zero
- (C) constant and in the direction of velocity
- (D) not a constant
- (E) constant and opposite to the direction of velocity
Question 5:
A projectile is projected with a velocity of \( 20 \, ms^{-1} \) at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. After some time its velocity vector makes an angle of 30° to the horizontal. Its speed at this instant (in \( ms^{-1} \)) is:
- (A) \( 10\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} \)
- (B) \( \frac{20}{\sqrt{3}} \)
- (C) \( 20\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}} \)
- (D) \( 10\sqrt{2} \)
- (E) \( 10\sqrt{3} \)
Question 6:
A boy sitting in a bus moving at a constant velocity throws a ball vertically up in the air. The ball will fall:
- (A) in the bus in front of the boy
- (B) in the bus on the side of the boy
- (C) outside the bus
- (D) in the hands of the boy
- (E) in the bus behind the boy
Question 7:
A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 25 g with a velocity of 1000 ms\(^{-1}\). If the man holding the gun can exert a maximum force of 100 N on the gun, the maximum number of bullets that he can fire per second is:
- (A) 4
- (B) 12
- (C) 8
- (D) 6
- (E) 3
Question 8:
When a vehicle moving with kinetic energy \( K \) is stopped in a distance \( d \) by applying a stopping force \( F \), the relation between \( F \) and \( K \) is given by:
- (A) \( F = \frac{K}{d} \)
- (B) \( F = Kd \)
- (C) \( F = \frac{1}{Kd} \)
- (D) \( F = \frac{d}{K} \)
- (E) \( F = \frac{d}{K^2} \)
Question 9:
In moving a body of mass \( m \) down a smooth incline of inclination \( \theta \) with velocity \( v \), the power required is (g = acceleration due to gravity):
- (A) \( mgv \)
- (B) \( (mg \cos \theta) v \)
- (C) \( (mg \sin \theta) v \)
- (D) \( \frac{mg \sin \theta}{v} \)
- (E) \( \frac{mg \cos \theta}{v} \)
Question 10:
The torque required to increase the angular speed of a uniform solid disc of mass 10 kg and diameter 0.5 m from zero to 120 rotations per minute in 5 sec is:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \, Nm \)
- (B) \( \pi \, Nm \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \, Nm \)
- (D) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \, Nm \)
- (E) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \, Nm \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \, \text{Nm} \)
View Solution
Question 11:
Radius of gyration \( K \) of a hollow cylinder of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \) about its long axis of symmetry is:
- (A) \( \frac{2R}{2} \)
- (B) \( \frac{R}{2} \)
- (C) \( R \)
- (D) \( \frac{R}{4} \)
- (E) \( \frac{3R}{4} \)
Question 12:
The value of escape velocity \( v_e \) for a planet depends on:
- (A) the mass of the body thrown from the planet
- (B) the direction of projection of the body
- (C) the angle of projection
- (D) only on the mass of the planet
- (E) its mass \( M \), density \( \rho \), and radius of the planet
Correct Answer: (E) its mass \( M \), density \( \rho \), and radius of the planet
View Solution
Question 13:
The slope of the graph plotted between the square of the time period of a planet \( T^2 \) and the cube of its mean distance from the sun \( r^3 \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{4\pi^2}{GM} \)
- (B) \( 4\pi GM \)
- (C) \( \frac{4\pi G}{M} \)
- (D) \( \frac{4\pi^2 M}{G} \)
- (E) Zero
Question 14:
If \( n \) small identical liquid drops, each having terminal velocity \( v \), merge together, then the terminal velocity of the bigger drop is:
- (A) \( n^2 v \)
- (B) \( n^{1/3} v \)
- (C) \( \frac{v}{n} \)
- (D) \( nv \)
- (E) \( n^{2/3} v \)
Question 15:
A fluid has stream line flow through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-sectional area. Then:
- (A) its velocity is minimum at the narrowest part of the tube and the pressure is minimum at the widest point
- (B) its velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest point
- (C) its velocity and pressure both are minimum at the narrowest point
- (D) its velocity is maximum at the narrowest point and the pressure is maximum at the widest part
- (E) its velocity is maximum and pressure is minimum at the narrowest point
Correct Answer: (E) its velocity is maximum and pressure is minimum at the narrowest point
View Solution
Question 16:
A metal rod of length 1 m at 20°C is made up of a material of coefficient of linear expansion \( 2 \times 10^{-5} \, ^\circ C^{-1} \). The temperature at which its length is increased by 1 mm is:
- (A) 45°C
- (B) 70°C
- (C) 65°C
- (D) 60°C
- (E) 50°C
Question 17:
The ends of a metallic rod are at temperatures \( T_1 \) and \( T_2 \), and the rate of flow of heat through it is \( Q \, J s^{-1} \). If all the dimensions of the rod are halved, keeping the end temperatures constant, the new rate of flow of heat will be:
- (A) \( 2Q \)
- (B) \( \frac{Q}{8} \)
- (C) \( \frac{Q}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{Q}{2} \)
- (E) \( Q \)
Question 18:
The rate of emission of a perfectly black body at temperature \( 27^\circ C \) is \( E_1 \). If the temperature of the body is raised to \( 627^\circ C \), its rate of emission becomes \( E_2 \). The ratio of \( \frac{E_1}{E_2} \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{1}{81} \)
- (B) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
- (C) \( \frac{1}{25} \)
- (D) \( \frac{1}{36} \)
- (E) \( \frac{1}{49} \)
Question 19:
A monoatomic ideal gas of \( n \) moles heated from temperature \( T_1 \) to \( T_2 \) under two different conditions (i) at constant pressure, (ii) at constant volume). The change in internal energy of the gas is:
- (A) more in process (ii)
- (B) more in process (i)
- (C) same in both the processes
- (D) zero
- (E) proportional to \( \frac{T_1 + T_2}{2} \)
Question 20:
The ratio between the root mean square velocities of \( O_2 \) and \( O_3 \) molecules at the same temperature is:
- (A) \( 3 : 2 \)
- (B) \( 2 : 3 \)
- (C) \( 1 : 1 \)
- (D) \( \sqrt{3} : \sqrt{2} \)
- (E) \( \sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3} \)
Question 21:
A particle is executing linear simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude of \( A \). If the total energy of oscillation is \( E \), then its kinetic energy at a distance of \( 0.707A \) from the mean position is:
- (A) \( \frac{E}{2} \)
- (B) \( \frac{E}{4} \)
- (C) \( \frac{3E}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{E}{4} \)
- (E) \( E \)
Question 22:
The equation of a stationary wave is given by \[ y = 5 \sin \frac{\pi}{2} \cos 10\pi t \, cm \]
The distance between two consecutive nodes (in cm) is:
- (A) 5
- (B) 2
- (C) 8
- (D) 1
- (E) 6
Question 23:
A thin spherical shell of radius 12 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 60 V. Then the potential at the centre of the sphere is:
- (A) 5 V
- (B) Zero
- (C) 30 V
- (D) 120 V
- (E) 60 V
Question 24:
A stationary body of mass 5 g carries a charge of 5 \(\mu\)C. The potential difference with which it should be accelerated to acquire a speed of 10 m/s is:
- (A) 4 kV
- (B) 25 kV
- (C) 50 kV
- (D) 40 kV
- (E) 2 kV
Question 25:
An electric dipole of dipole moment \( p \) is kept in a uniform electric field \( E \) such that it is aligned parallel to the field. The energy required to rotate it by 45° is:
- (A) \( pE \)
- (B) \( pE \left(\frac{\sqrt{2} + 1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
- (C) \( pE \left(\frac{\sqrt{2} - 1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
- (D) \( \frac{pE}{\sqrt{2}} \)
- (E) \( \sqrt{2} pE \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( pE \left(\frac{\sqrt{2} - 1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \)
View Solution
Question 26:
A steady current of 2 A is flowing through a conducting wire. The number of electrons flowing per second in it is:
- (A) \( 1.25 \times 10^7 \)
- (B) \( 1.25 \times 10^{19} \)
- (C) \( 2.50 \times 10^{10} \)
- (D) \( 0.125 \times 10^{25} \)
- (E) \( 2.5 \times 10^{17} \)
Question 27:
If the voltage across a bulb rated 220V – 60W drops by 1.5% of its rated value, the percentage drop in the rated value of the power is:
- (A) 0.75%
- (B) 1.5%
- (C) 4.5%
- (D) 3%
- (E) 2.5%
Question 28:
The terminal potential difference of a cell in the open circuit is 2 V. When the cell is connected to a 10\(\omega\) resistor, the terminal potential difference falls to 1.5 V. The internal resistance of the cell is:
- (A) \( \frac{10}{3} \, \Omega \)
- (B) \( \frac{10}{9} \, \Omega \)
- (C) \( \frac{20}{7} \, \Omega \)
- (D) \( \frac{15}{6} \, \Omega \)
- (E) \( \frac{13}{2} \, \Omega \)
Question 29:
For a linear material, the relation between the relative magnetic permeability \( \mu_r \) and magnetic susceptibility \( \chi \) is:
- (A) \( \chi = \mu_r + 1 \)
- (B) \( \chi = \mu_r - 1 \)
- (C) \( \chi = \mu_r \mu \)
- (D) \( \mu - 1 \)
- (E) \( \mu = \mu_r + 1 \)
Question 30:
The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil having a single turn of the wire carrying current \( I \) is \( B \). The magnetic field at the centre of the same coil with 4 turns carrying the same current is:
- (A) \( 16B \)
- (B) \( 8B \)
- (C) \( 4B \)
- (D) \( \frac{B}{2} \)
- (E) \( \frac{B}{4} \)
Question 31:
A current carrying square loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If \( \vec{F} \) is the force acting on one arm of the loop, then the net force acting on the remaining three arms of the loop is:
- (A) \( -3\vec{F} \)
- (B) \( 3\vec{F} \)
- (C) \( \vec{F} \)
- (D) \( -\vec{F} \)
- (E) \( -\frac{1}{2}\vec{F} \)
Question 32:
If the magnetic field energy stored in an inductor changes from maximum to minimum value in 5 ms, when connected to an a.c. source, the frequency of the a.c. source is:
- (A) 200 Hz
- (B) 500 Hz
- (C) 50 Hz
- (D) 20 Hz
- (E) 100 Hz
Question 33:
In an LCR circuit, at resonance, the value of the power factor is:
- (A) 1
- (B) 0
- (C) 0.5
- (D) 0.75
- (E) infinity
Question 34:
An electromagnetic wave is propagating in a medium with velocity \( \vec{v} = v \hat{i} \). The instantaneous oscillating magnetic field of this electromagnetic wave is along positive \( z \)-direction. Then the direction of the oscillating electric field is in the:
- (A) positive \( x \)-direction
- (B) negative \( x \)-direction
- (C) positive \( y \)-direction
- (D) negative \( y \)-direction
- (E) negative \( z \)-direction
Question 35:
When light is reflected from an optically rarer medium:
- (A) its phase remains unchanged but its frequency increases
- (B) both its phase and frequency remain unchanged
- (C) its phase changes by \( \pi \) but the frequency remains unchanged
- (D) its phase remains the same but the frequency decreases
- (E) its phase changes by \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) but the frequency remains unchanged
Correct Answer: (B) both its phase and frequency remain unchanged
View Solution
Question 36:
Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 3 cm. When the lens is immersed in water of refractive index \( \frac{4}{3} \), its focal length will be:
- (A) 3 cm
- (B) 10 cm
- (C) 12 cm
- (D) 1.5 cm
- (E) 6 cm
Question 37:
A narrow single slit of width \( d \) is illuminated by white light. If the first minimum for violet light (\( \lambda = 4500 \, Å \)) falls at \( \theta = 30^\circ \), the width of the slit \( d \) in microns is (1 micron = \( 10^{-6} \) m):
- (A) 0.4
- (B) 0.5
- (C) 0.3
- (D) 0.7
- (E) 0.9
Question 38:
Threshold frequency for photoelectric effect from a metallic surface corresponds to a wavelength of 6000 \(Å\). The photoelectric work function for the metal is \( h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} \, Js \):
- (A) \( 1.5 \times 10^{-19} \, J \)
- (B) \( 2.7 \times 10^{-18} \, J \)
- (C) \( 5.4 \times 10^{-18} \, J \)
- (D) \( 4.5 \times 10^{-19} \, J \)
- (E) \( 3.3 \times 10^{-19} \, J \)
Correct Answer: (E) \( 3.3 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \)
View Solution
Question 39:
A proton and a photon have the same energy. Then the de-Broglie wavelength of proton \( \lambda_p \) and wavelength of photon \( \lambda_0 \) are related by:
- (A) \( \lambda_0 \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda_p}} \)
- (B) \( \lambda_0 \propto \sqrt{\lambda_p} \)
- (C) \( \lambda_0 \propto \lambda_p \)
- (D) \( \lambda_0 \propto \lambda_p^2 \)
- (E) \( \lambda_0 \propto \frac{1}{\lambda_p} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \lambda_0 \propto \lambda_p^2 \)
View Solution
Question 40:
Bohr atom model is invalid for:
- (A) Hydrogen atom
- (B) doubly ionized helium atom
- (C) deuteron atom
- (D) singly ionized helium atom
- (E) doubly ionized lithium atom
Question 41:
The energy equivalent of 1 g of a substance in joules is:
- (A) \( 9 \times 10^{13} \)
- (B) \( 4.5 \times 10^{13} \)
- (C) \( 1 \times 10^{13} \)
- (D) \( 0.5 \times 10^{13} \)
- (E) \( 2.25 \times 10^{13} \)
Question 42:
Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio 2:3. The ratio of the nuclear densities would be:
- (A) \( 2:3^{1/3} \)
- (B) \( 3^{1/3}:2 \)
- (C) \( 2:3 \)
- (D) \( 3:2 \)
- (E) \( 1:1 \)
Question 43:
Four hydrogen atoms combine to form an \( ^4_2He \) atom with a release of 26.7 MeV of energy. This is:
- (A) fission reaction
- (B) \( \beta^+ \) emission
- (C) \( \beta^- \) emission
- (D) \( \gamma \) emission
- (E) fusion reaction
Question 44:
In the circuit given below, the current is:
- (A) 0.10 A
- (B) \( 10^{-3} \) A
- (C) 0.5 A
- (D) 1 A
- (E) 0 A
Question 45:
Electric conduction in a semiconductor is due to:
- (A) holes only
- (B) electrons only
- (C) neither holes nor electrons
- (D) both electrons and holes
- (E) recombination of electrons and holes
Question 46:
260 g of an aqueous solution contains 60 g of urea (Molar mass = 60 g mol\(^{-1}\)). The molality of the solution is:
- (A) 2m
- (B) 3m
- (C) 4m
- (D) 5m
- (E) 6m
Question 47:
Which of the following pair exhibits diagonal relationship?
- (A) Li and Mg
- (B) Li and Na
- (C) Mg and Al
- (D) B and P
- (E) C and Cl
Question 48:
The molecule which has a see-saw structure is:
- (A) NH\(_3\)
- (B) SF\(_4\)
- (C) CCl\(_4\)
- (D) SiCl\(_4\)
- (E) BrF\(_5\)
Question 49:
The quantum number which determines the shape of the subshell is:
- (A) Principal quantum number
- (B) Magnetic quantum number
- (C) Azimuthal quantum number
- (D) Spin quantum number
- (E) Principal and magnetic quantum number
Question 50:
The total enthalpy change when 1 mol of water at 100°C and 1 bar pressure is converted to ice at 0°C is:
- (A) -7.56 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
- (B) -6.00 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
- (C) -13.56 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
- (D) -756 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
- (E) -1.356 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
Question 51:
The balanced ionic equation for the reaction of K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\) with Na\(_2\)SO\(_3\) in an acid solution is:
- (A) Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)(aq) + SO\(_3^{2-}\)(aq) + 8H\(^+\)(aq) \( \to \) 2Cr\(^3+\)(aq) + SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) + 4H\(_2\)O(l)
- (B) Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)(aq) + 3SO\(_3^{2-}\)(aq) + 2H\(^+\)(aq) \( \to \) 2Cr\(^3+\)(aq) + 3SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) + H\(_2\)O(l)
- (C) 3Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)(aq) + 3SO\(_3^{2-}\)(aq) + 8H\(^+\)(aq) \( \to \) 6Cr\(^3+\)(aq) + 3SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) + H\(_2\)O(l)
- (D) 3Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)(aq) + 3SO\(_3^{2-}\)(aq) + 2H\(^+\)(aq) \( \to \) 3Cr\(^3+\)(aq) + 3SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) + H\(_2\)O(l)
- (E) Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)(aq) + 3SO\(_3^{2-}\)(aq) + 8H\(^+\)(aq) \( \to \) 2Cr\(^3+\)(aq) + 3SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) + 4H\(_2\)O(l)
Correct Answer: (E) Cr\(_2\)O\(_7^{2-}\)(aq) + 3SO\(_3^{2-}\)(aq) + 8H\(^+\)(aq) \( \to \) 2Cr\(^3+\)(aq) + 3SO\(_4^{2-}\)(aq) + 4H\(_2\)O(l)
View Solution
Question 52:
The limiting molar conductances of NaCl, HCl and CH\(_3\)COONa at 300 K are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm\(^2\) mol\(^-1\) respectively. The limiting molar conductance of acetic acid at 300 K is:
- (A) \(266 \, S cm^2 \, mol^{-1}\)
- (B) \(390.5 \, S cm^2 \, mol^{-1}\)
- (C) \(461.3 \, S cm^2 \, mol^{-1}\)
- (D) \(208 \, S cm^2 \, mol^{-1}\)
- (E) \(108 \, S cm^2 \, mol^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(390.5 \, \text{S cm}^2 \, \text{mol}^{-1}\)
View Solution
Question 53:
Which of the following liquid pairs shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
- (A) Phenol - Aniline
- (B) Acetone - Carbon disulphide
- (C) Benzene - Toluene
- (D) n-hexane — n-heptane
- (E) Bromoethane — Chloroethane
Question 54:
The half-life period of a first order reaction is 1000 seconds. Its rate constant is:
- (A) \(0.693 \, sec^{-1}\)
- (B) \(6.93 \times 10^{-2} \, sec^{-1}\)
- (C) \(6.93 \times 10^{-3} \, sec^{-1}\)
- (D) \(6.93 \times 10^{-4} \, sec^{-1}\)
- (E) \(6.93 \times 10^{-1} \, sec^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(6.93 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{sec}^{-1}\)
View Solution
Question 55:
Which of the following material acts as a semiconductor at 298 K?
- (A) Iron
- (B) Copper oxide
- (C) Sodium
- (D) Graphite
- (E) Glass
Question 56:
The resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.02 M KCl solution is 520 ohm at 298 K. The conductivity of the solution at 298 K is (Cell constant = 130 cm\(^{-1}\)):
- (A) \(0.50 \, S cm^{-1}\)
- (B) \(1.25 \, S cm^{-1}\)
- (C) \(0.025 \, S cm^{-1}\)
- (D) \(0.25 \, S cm^{-1}\)
- (E) \(0.75 \, S cm^{-1}\)
Question 57:
For the equilibrium at 500 K, \( N_2 (g) + 3H_2 (g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3 (g) \), the equilibrium concentrations of \(N_2 (g)\), \(H_2 (g)\) and \(NH_3 (g)\) are respectively 4.0 M, 2.0 M and 2.0 M. The \(K_c\) for the formation of \(NH_3\) at 500 K is:
- (A) \( \frac{1}{16} \, mol^{-2} \, dm^6 \)
- (B) \( \frac{1}{32} \, mol^{-2} \, dm^6 \)
- (C) \( \frac{1}{8} \, mol^{-2} \, dm^6 \)
- (D) \( \frac{1}{4} \, mol^{-2} \, dm^6 \)
- (E) \( \frac{1}{2} \, mol^{-2} \, dm^6 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{1}{8} \, \text{mol}^{-2} \, \text{dm}^6 \)
View Solution
Question 58:
The molarity of a solution containing 8 g of NaOH (Molar mass = 40 g mol\(^{-1}\)) in 250 mL solution is:
- (A) \(0.8 \, M\)
- (B) \(0.4 \, M\)
- (C) \(0.2 \, M\)
- (D) \(0.5 \, M\)
- (E) \(0.6 \, M\)
Question 59:
Which of the following are the conditions for a reaction spontaneous at all temperatures?
- (A) \( \Delta_r H > 0 ; \Delta_r S > 0 \)
- (B) \( \Delta_r H < 0 ; \Delta_r S > 0 \)
- (C) \( \Delta_r H < 0 ; \Delta_r S < 0 \)
- (D) \( \Delta_r H = 0 ; \Delta_r S < 0 \)
- (E) \( \Delta_r H = 0 ; \Delta_r S = 0 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \Delta H < 0 ; \Delta S > 0 \)
View Solution
Question 60:
Transition elements act as catalyst because
- (A) their melting points are high
- (B) their ionization potential values are high
- (C) they have high density
- (D) they show variable oxidation state
- (E) they have high electronegativity
Correct Answer: (D) they show variable oxidation state
View Solution
Question 61:
Lanthanides (Ln) burn in O\(_2\) to give
- (A) LnO
- (B) Ln(OH)\(_3\)
- (C) Ln\(_2\)O\(_3\)
- (D) LnO\(_2\)
- (E) LnO\(_3\)
Question 62:
The IUPAC name of the coordination compound Hg[Co(SCN)\(_4\)] is
- (A) Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
- (B) Mercury (II) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (II)
- (C) Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (IV)
- (D) Mercury (II) tetraisocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
- (E) Mercury (I) tetraisocyanato-N-cobaltate (III)
Correct Answer: (B) Mercury (II) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (II)
View Solution
Question 63:
In a combustion reaction, heat change during the formation of 40 g of carbon dioxide from carbon and dioxygen gas is (Enthalpy of combustion of carbon = -396 kJ mol\(^1\))
- (A) 320 kJ
- (B) -320 kJ
- (C) -360 kJ
- (D) 360 kJ
- (E) 240 kJ
Question 64:
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
- (A) Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.
- (B) Tertiary carbocation is relatively more stable than a secondary carbocation.
- (C) F has stronger -I effect than Cl.
- (D) Inductive effect decreases with increasing distance.
- (E) When inductive and electromeric effects operate in opposite directions, the inductive effect predominates.
Correct Answer: (E) When inductive and electromeric effects operate in opposite directions, the inductive effect predominates.
View Solution
Question 65:
Which of the following statement is incorrect with regard to ozonolysis?
- (A) It involves addition of ozone on alkene.
- (B) An unsymmetrical alkene gives two different carbonyl compounds.
- (C) It is used to identify the number of double bonds in the starting material.
- (D) It cannot be used to detect the position of the double bonds.
- (E) Ozonide will undergo cleavage by Zn-H\(_2\)O.
Correct Answer: (D) It cannot be used to detect the position of the double bonds.
View Solution
Question 66:
Which of the following statement is true?
- (A) Dehydration of alcohol takes place in presence of HCl/ZnCl\(_2\).
- (B) Formation of ethene from ethyl iodide occurs on heating with aqueous KOH.
- (C) Hydrogenation of an unsymmetrical alkyne in presence of Pd/C gives cis-alkene.
- (D) Hydrogenation of an unsymmetrical alkyne in presence of Na/liqu. NH\(_3\) gives cis-alkene.
- (E) The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides towards alkenes is HI < HBr < HCl.
Correct Answer: (C) Hydrogenation of an unsymmetrical alkyne in presence of Pd/C gives cis-alkene.
View Solution
Question 67:
An organic compound X (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)O) on reaction with zinc dust gives Y. The product Y reacts with CH\(_3\)COCl in presence of anhydrous AlCl\(_3\) to give Z (C\(_6\)H\(_5\)O). The compounds X, Y, and Z are respectively
- (A) benzaldehyde, benzene, methyl phenyl ketone
- (B) phenol, benzene, acetophenone
- (C) phenol, naphthalene, acetophenone
- (D) benzene, phenol, diphenyl ketone
- (E) cyclohexanol, cyclohexane, benzophenone
Question 68:
The percentage amylose in starch is about
- (A) 40-50 %
- (B) 80-85 %
- (C) 60-80 %
- (D) 50-60 %
- (E) 15-20 %
Question 69:
Which of the following statement is correct?
- (A) Bromination of phenol in CS\(_2\), at low temperature gives 2,4,6-tribromophenol.
- (B) Oxidation of phenol with chromic acid gives benzene.
- (C) Conversion of phenol into tribromophenol by bromine water is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
- (D) p-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
- (E) The intermediate in Reimer-Tiemann reaction is substituted benzal chloride.
Correct Answer: (E) The intermediate in Reimer-Tiemann reaction is substituted benzal chloride.
View Solution
Question 70:
On heating an aldehyde with Fehling’s reagent, a reddish-brown precipitate is obtained due to the formation of
- (A) cupric oxide
- (B) cuprous oxide
- (C) carboxylic acid
- (D) silver
- (E) copper acetate
Question 71:
The decreasing order of basic strength of amines in aqueous medium is:
- (A) \( CH_3NH_2 > (CH_3)_2NH > (CH_3)_3N > NH_3 \)
- (B) \( (CH_3)_2NH > CH_3NH_2 > (CH_3)_3N > NH_3 \)
- (C) \( CH_3NH_2 > (CH_3)_3N > (CH_3)_2NH > NH_3 \)
- (D) \( (CH_3)_2NH > NH_3 > (CH_3)_3N > CH_3NH_2 \)
- (E) \( NH_3 > CH_3NH_2 > (CH_3)_3N > (CH_3)_2NH \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{NH} > \text{CH}_3\text{NH}_2 > \text{(CH}_3\text{)}_3\text{N} > \text{NH}_3 \)
View Solution
Question 72:
Which of the following statement is correct?
- (A) Sucrose is laevorotatory.
- (B) Fructose is a disaccharide.
- (C) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives D(+) glucose only.
- (D) Sucrose is made up of a glycosidic linkage between C1 of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose and C2 of \(\beta\)-D-Fructose.
- (E) Sucrose is a reducing sugar.
Correct Answer: (D) Sucrose is made up of a glycosidic linkage between C1 of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose and C2 of \(\beta\)-D-Fructose.
View Solution
Question 73:
The structure of MnO\(_4^-\) ion is:
- (A) square planar
- (B) octahedral
- (C) trigonal pyramid
- (D) pyramid
- (E) tetrahedral
Question 74:
When benzene diazonium fluoroborate is heated with aqueous sodium nitrite solution in the presence of copper, the product formed is:
- (A) fluorobenzene
- (B) benzene
- (C) aniline
- (D) nitrobenzene
- (E) phenol
Question 75:
A fibrous protein present in muscles is:
- (A) keratin
- (B) albumin
- (C) riboflavin
- (D) insulin
- (E) myosin
Question 76:
Let \( P \) and \( Q \) be two finite sets having 3 elements each. The total number of mappings from \( P \) to \( Q \) is
- (A) 32
- (B) 516
- (C) 6
- (D) 9
- (E) 27
Question 77:
If \( f(x) = \lfloor x \rfloor \), where \( \lfloor x \rfloor \) denotes the greatest integer function, and if the domain of \( f \) is \( \{-3.01, 2.99\} \), then the range of \( f \) is
- (A) \( \{-3, 3\} \)
- (B) \( \{-4, 3\} \)
- (C) \( \{-3, 2\} \)
- (D) \( \{-4, 2\} \)
- (E) \( \{-2, 3\} \)
Question 78:
The domain of the function \( f(x) = \sqrt{7 - 8x + x^2} \) is
- (A) \( (-\infty, 1) \cup (7, \infty) \)
- (B) \( (-\infty, 1] \cup [7, \infty) \)
- (C) \( (-\infty, 1) \cup [7, \infty) \)
- (D) \( (-\infty, -1) \cup (7, \infty) \)
- (E) \( (-\infty, -7] \cup [1, \infty) \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( (-\infty, 1] \cup [7, \infty) \)
View Solution
Question 79:
The period of the function \( \sin\left( \frac{\pi x}{4} \right) \) is
- (A) 4
- (B) \( 4\pi \)
- (C) \( 8\pi \)
- (D) 8
- (E) \( 2\pi \)
Question 80:
If \( f(x) = x + 8 \), and \( g(x) = 2x^2 \), then \( (g \circ f)(x) \) is equal to
- (A) \( (2x + 8)^2 \)
- (B) \( 2(x + 8)^2 \)
- (C) \( 2x^2 + 8 \)
- (D) \( 2x^2 + 64 \)
- (E) \( 2x^3 + 8x \)
Question 81:
If \( f(x) = \frac{x}{1 - x} \), \( x \neq 1 \), then the inverse of \( f \) is
- (A) \( \frac{1 - x}{1 + x}, \, x \neq -1 \)
- (B) \( \frac{1}{1 + x}, \, x \neq -1 \)
- (C) \( \frac{1 - x}{x}, \, x \neq 0 \)
- (D) \( \frac{x}{1 + x}, \, x \neq -1 \)
- (E) \( \frac{1 + x}{1 - x}, \, x \neq 1 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{x}{1 + x}, \, x \neq -1 \)
View Solution
Question 82:
If the complex numbers \( (2 + i)x + (1 - i)y + 2i - 3 \) and \( x + (-1 + 2i)y + 1 + i \) are equal, then \( (x, y) \) is
- (A) \( (1, -2) \)
- (B) \( (-1, 2) \)
- (C) \( (2, -1) \)
- (D) \( (2, -2) \)
- (E) \( (2, 1) \)
Question 83:
If \( x + iy = \frac{3 + 4i}{5 - 12i} \), then \( x + y \) is equal to
- (A) \( \frac{23}{169} \)
- (B) \( \frac{56}{169} \)
- (C) \( \frac{15}{169} \)
- (D) \( \frac{15}{169} \)
- (E) \( \frac{71}{169} \)
Question 84:
If \( z = 1 + i \), then the maximum value of \( |z + 12 + 9i| \) is
- (A) 225
- (B) 265
- (C) 269
- (D) 200
- (E) \( \sqrt{265} \)
Question 85:
If \( \frac{|z - 5i|}{|z - 5i|} = 1 \), then
- (A) \( Re(z) = 0 \)
- (B) \( |z| = 10 \)
- (C) \( |z| = 25 \)
- (D) \( |z| = 5 \)
- (E) \( Im(z) = 0 \)
Question 86:
The coefficient of \( x^7 \) in the expansion of \( \left( \frac{1}{x + x^2} \right)^8 \) is
- (A) 70
- (B) 28
- (C) 42
- (D) 56
- (E) 8
Question 87:
If \( a_1 = 3 \) and \( a_n = n \cdot a_{n-1} \), for \( n \geq 2 \), then \( a_6 \) is equal to
- (A) 72
- (B) 144
- (C) 720
- (D) 2160
- (E) 4320
Question 88:
If \( \frac{1}{\log_2 x} + \frac{1}{\log_3 x} + \frac{1}{\log_4 x} + \frac{1}{\log_5 x} + \frac{1}{\log_6 x} = 1 \), then the value of \( x \) is
- (A) 18
- (B) 36
- (C) 120
- (D) 360
- (E) 720
Question 89:
The common ratio of a G.P. is 10. Then the ratio between its 11th term and its 6th term is:
- (A) \( 10^6 : 1 \)
- (B) \( 10^5 : 1 \)
- (C) \( 10^4 : 1 \)
- (D) \( 10^{11} : 1 \)
- (E) \( 10^3 : 1 \)
Question 90:
Let \( a, b, c \) be positive numbers. If \( a + b + c \geq K \left[ (a + b)(b + c)(c + a) \right]^{1/3} \), then the maximum value of \( K \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
- (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
- (C) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
- (E) 1
Question 91:
If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 4 & -1
12 & x \end{bmatrix} \) and \( A^2 = A \), then the value of \( x \) is:
- (A) -8
- (B) -3
- (C) 0
- (D) 3
- (E) 8
Question 92:
If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 7
2 & 5 \end{bmatrix} \), then \( A^2 (adj A) \) is:
- (A) \( I \)
- (B) \( 4I \)
- (C) \( 2A \)
- (D) \( 3A \)
- (E) \( A \)
Question 93:
If \( |x - 2| \leq 4 \), then \( x \) lies in the interval:
- (A) \( (-\infty, -2) \)
- (B) \( (-\infty, 0) \)
- (C) \( [-2, 6] \)
- (D) \( (-2, \infty) \)
- (E) \( (-2, 4) \)
Question 94:
If \( \tan \left( \frac{\pi}{12} + 2x \right) = \cot 3x \), where \( 0 < x < \frac{\pi}{2} \), then the value of \( x \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
- (B) \( 3 \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
- (E) \( \frac{\pi}{24} \)
Question 95:
If \( \cos \theta + \sin \theta = \sqrt{2} \), then \( \cos \theta - \sin \theta \) is equal to:
- (A) 0
- (B) -\frac{1}{2}
- (C) \frac{1}{2}
- (D) \frac{1}{4}
- (E) 1
Question 96:
The value of \( \cos 26^\circ + \cos 54^\circ + \cos 126^\circ + \cos 206^\circ + \cos 240^\circ \) is:
- (A) 0
- (B) 1
- (C) -\frac{1}{2}
- (D) \frac{1}{2}
- (E) -1
Question 97:
If \( \cos x - \sin x = 0 \), \( 0 \leq x \leq \pi \), then the value(s) of \( x \) is/are:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (B) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{5\pi}{4} \)
- (E) \( \frac{3\pi}{2} \)
Question 98:
If \( 2 \sin \left( \frac{\pi}{3} - 2x \right) - 1 = 0 \), \( 0 < x < \frac{\pi}{2} \), then the value of \( x \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (B) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
- (C) \( \frac{5\pi}{12} \)
- (D) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
- (E) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
Question 99:
Domain of the function \( \sin^{-1}(2x - 1) \) is:
- (A) \( [0, 1] \)
- (B) \( [0, \infty) \)
- (C) \( [-\infty, 1] \)
- (D) \( [1, \infty) \)
- (E) \( [-1, 1] \)
Question 100:
If \( 3 \tan^{-1}(x) + \cot^{-1}(x) = \pi \), then \( \sin^{-1}(x) \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
- (B) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
- (E) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
Question 101:
tan\(^{-1} 2 - \) tan\(^{-1} \frac{1}{3}\) is equal to:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
- (B) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (D) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
- (E) 0
Question 102:
sin\(^{-1} \left( \sin \left( \frac{5\pi}{6} \right) \right) \) is equal to:
- (A) \( \frac{5\pi}{6} \)
- (B) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
- (D) \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
- (E) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
Question 103:
If \( \sin x = \frac{3}{5} \), then the value of \( \sec x + \tan x \) is equal to:
- (A) -2
- (B) 3
- (C) 0
- (D) 2
- (E) -3
Question 104:
If \( P(-3, 4) \) and \( Q(3, 1) \) are points on a straight line, then the slope of the straight line perpendicular to PQ is:
- (A) 1
- (B) -2
- (C) 2
- (D) -1
- (E) \( \sqrt{3} \)
Question 105:
The length of perpendicular from the origin to the line \( \frac{x}{5} - \frac{y}{12} = 1 \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{60}{13} \)
- (B) \( \frac{5}{12} \)
- (C) \( \frac{12}{5} \)
- (D) \( \frac{13}{12} \)
- (E) \( \frac{13}{60} \)
Question 106:
The equation of the straight line passing through the point \( (1, 1) \) and perpendicular to the line \( x + y = 5 \) is:
- (A) \( x - y = 2 \)
- (B) \( x - y = 0 \)
- (C) \( x - y = -2 \)
- (D) \( x + y = 2 \)
- (E) \( x + y = 0 \)
Question 107:
The area of the triangle formed by the coordinate axes and a line whose perpendicular from the origin makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis is 50 square units. Then the equation of the line is:
- (A) \( x + y = 10 \)
- (B) \( x + 2y = 10 \)
- (C) \( 2x + y = 5 \)
- (D) \( x + y = 25 \)
- (E) \( x + y = 5 \)
Question 108:
The equation of the straight line, intersecting the coordinate axes \( x \) and \( y \) are respectively 1 and 2, is:
- (A) \( x + y = 3 \)
- (B) \( x - 2y = -3 \)
- (C) \( 2x - y = 0 \)
- (D) \( 2x + y = 2 \)
- (E) \( x - y = -1 \)
Question 109:
If the sum of distances of a point from the origin and the line \( x = 3 \) is 8, then its locus is:
- (A) \( y^2 - 10x + 25 = 0 \)
- (B) \( y^2 + 10x + 25 = 0 \)
- (C) \( y^2 - 10x - 25 = 0 \)
- (D) \( y^2 - 25x + 10 = 0 \)
- (E) \( y^2 + 25x - 10 = 0 \)
Question 110:
If the point \( (2, k) \) lies on the circle \( (x - 2)^2 + (y + 1)^2 = 4 \), then the value of \( k \) is:
- (A) \( 1, 3 \)
- (B) \( 1, 2 \)
- (C) \( -1, 3 \)
- (D) \( 2, 3 \)
- (E) \( 1, -3 \)
Question 111:
The radius of the circle \( x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 4y - 4 = 0 \) is:
- (A) \( 2 \)
- (B) \( 3 \)
- (C) \( 4 \)
- (D) \( 5 \)
- (E) \( 6 \)
Question 112:
The eccentricity of an ellipse is \( \frac{1}{3} \) and its center is at the origin. If one of the directrices is \( x = 9 \), then the equation of the ellipse is:
- (A) \( 8x^2 + 9y^2 = 32 \)
- (B) \( 8x^2 + 9y^2 = 36 \)
- (C) \( 9x^2 + 8y^2 = 36 \)
- (D) \( 9x^2 + 8y^2 = 32 \)
- (E) \( 8x^2 + 9y^2 = 72 \)
Question 113:
If the parametric form of the circle is \( x = 3\cos\theta + 3 \) and \( y = 3\sin\theta \), then the Cartesian form of the equation of the circle is:
- (A) \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x = 0 \)
- (B) \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x = 9 \)
- (C) \( x^2 + y^2 + 6x = 9 \)
- (D) \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x = 0 \)
- (E) \( x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 2y = 9 \)
Question 114:
A line makes angles \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) with \( x, y \), and \( z \)-axes respectively. Then the value of \( \sin^2\alpha + \sin^2\beta - \cos^2\gamma \) is:
- (A) \( 3 \)
- (B) \( 2 \)
- (C) \( 1 \)
- (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
- (E) \( 0 \)
Question 115:
The direction ratios of the line joining the points \( (2, 3, 4) \) and \( (-1, 4, -3) \) is:
- (A) \( \pm (3, -1, 7) \)
- (B) \( \pm (-3, -1, 7) \)
- (C) \( \pm (3, 1, 7) \)
- (D) \( \pm (3, -1, -7) \)
- (E) \( \pm (-3, 1, 7) \)
Question 116:
Equation of the line parallel to the line \( \frac{x-2}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z-1}{-2} \) and passing through the point \( (3, 2, -1) \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{x-3}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z+1}{2} \)
- (B) \( \frac{x+3}{2} = \frac{y+2}{3} = \frac{z-1}{-2} \)
- (C) \( \frac{x-3}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z-1}{-2} \)
- (D) \( \frac{x-3}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z+1}{2} \)
- (E) \( \frac{x+3}{2} = \frac{y+2}{3} = \frac{z+1}{-2} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{x-3}{2} = \frac{y-2}{3} = \frac{z+1}{2} \)
View Solution
Question 117:
If the lines \( \frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-2}{\alpha} = \frac{z-3}{2} \) and \( \frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y-2}{1} = \frac{z-3}{-2} \) are perpendicular, then the value of \( \alpha \) is:
- (A) 6
- (B) 4
- (C) 3
- (D) -3
- (E) -2
Question 118:
If \( \vec{a} = 2\vec i + 4\vec j + 7\vec k \) and \( \vec {b} = 4\vec i + 7\vec j + 2\vec k \), then the angle between \( \vec{a} + \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{a} - \vec{b} \) is equal to:
- (A) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
- (B) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
- (C) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
- (D) \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
- (E) \( \frac{2\pi}{5} \)
Question 119:
A vector of magnitude 6 and perpendicular to \( \vec{a} = 2i + 2j + k \) and \( \vec{b} = i - 2j + 2k \), is:
- (A) \( \pm (2\vec i - \vec j - 2\vec k) \)
- (B) \( \pm 2(2\vec i - \vec j + 2\vec k) \)
- (C) \( \pm (2\vec i - \vec j + 2\vec k) \)
- (D) \( \pm 2(2\vec i + \vec j - 2\vec k) \)
- (E) \( \pm 2(2\vec i - \vec j - 2\vec k) \)
Correct Answer: (E) \( \pm 2(2\vec i - \vec j - 2\vec k) \)
View Solution
Question 120:
If \( \vec{a} \) and \( \vec{b} \) are non-collinear unit vectors and \( |\vec{a} + \vec{b}|^2 = 3 \), then \( (3\vec{a} + 2\vec{b}) \cdot (3\vec{a} - \vec{b}) \) is equal to:
- (A) \( \frac{32}{3} \)
- (B) \( \frac{17}{2} \)
- (C) 15
- (D) 7
- (E) \( \frac{17}{4} \)
Question 121:
If \( x_1, i=2, 3, \ldots, n \) are \( n \) observations such that \( \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i^2 = 550 \), mean \( \bar{x} = 5 \) and variance is zero, then the number of observations is equal to:
- (A) 30
- (B) 25
- (C) 22
- (D) 16
- (E) 4
Question 122:
If the mean of five observations \( x, 2x+5, 13, 2x-7, \) and 9 is 22, then the value of \( x \) is:
- (A) 20
- (B) 15
- (C) 10
- (D) 12
- (E) 18
Question 123:
If \( A \) and \( B \) are two independent events such that \( P(A) = 0.4 \) and \( P(A \cup B) = 0.7 \), then \( P(B) \) is equal to:
- (A) 0.3
- (B) 0.4
- (C) 0.5
- (D) 0.6
- (E) 0.7
Question 124:
The probability that at least one of \( A \) or \( B \) occurs is 0.6. If \( A \) and \( B \) occur simultaneously with probability 0.2, then \( P(A') + P(B') \) is:
- (A) 0.7
- (B) 1.5
- (C) 1.1
- (D) 1.2
- (E) 0.3
Question 125:
The value of \( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin(5x)}{\sin(3x)} \) is:
- (A) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
- (B) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
- (C) 1
- (D) 0
- (E) 5
Question 126:
The value of \( \lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x^2 + 2x - 3}{x - 1} \) is:
- (A) 2
- (B) 4
- (C) 3
- (D) 1
- (E) 0
Question 127:
If \( f(x) = \frac{1}{2 - x} \) and \( g(x) = \frac{1}{1 - x} \), then the point(s) of discontinuity of the function \( g(f(x)) \) is (are):
- (A) \( x = 2 \)
- (B) \( x = 3 \)
- (C) \( x = 2, x = 3 \)
- (D) \( x = 2, x = 1 \)
- (E) \( x = 1, x = -2 \)
Question 128:
Let \( f(x) = \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1 - \tan^2 x}{1 + \tan^2 x} \right) \). Then \( f\left( \frac{\pi}{2} \right) \) is equal to:
- (A) -1
- (B) 2
- (C) 1
- (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
- (E) \( \sqrt{3} \)
Question 129:
If \( x = r \cos \theta, y = r \sin \theta \), then \( \frac{dy}{dx} \) at \( \theta = \frac{\pi}{4} \), where \( r \) is a constant and \( \theta \) is a parameter, is equal to:
- (A) 0
- (B) 1
- (C) -1
- (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \)
- (E) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
Question 130:
If \( f(x) = \int_0^{x^3} (t + 4)^2 dt \), then \( f'(2) \) is equal to:
- (A) 288
- (B) 432
- (C) 144
- (D) 216
- (E) 24
Question 131:
The limit \( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{3 \sin^2 2x}{x^2} \) is equal to:
- (A) 3
- (B) 2
- (C) 6
- (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
- (E) 12
Question 132:
The function \( f(x) = (x - 4)^2 (1 + x)^3 \) attains a local extremum at the point:
- (A) \( x = 2 \)
- (B) \( x = -1 \)
- (C) \( x = 0 \)
- (D) \( x = 1 \)
- (E) \( x = -2 \)
Question 133:
The derivative of \( t^2 + t \) with respect to \( t-1 \) at \( t = -2 \), is equal to:
- (A) -4
- (B) 2
- (C) -1
- (D) -3
- (E) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
Question 134:
If a continuous function \( f \) is defined as \[ f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} ax + 1, & x < 2
x^2 + 7, & x \geq 2 \end{array} \right. \]
then the value of \( a \) is:
- (A) 7
- (B) 6
- (C) 5
- (D) 3
- (E) 2
Question 135:
If \( f(x) = x|x| \), then \( f'(-1) + f'(1) \) is equal to:
- (A) 2
- (B) -2
- (C) 0
- (D) -4
- (E) 4
Question 136:
The integral \( \int \frac{1 + x^2 + x^4}{(1 - x^3)(1 + x^3)} \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) \( \tan^{-1}(x) + C \)
- (B) \( \tan^{-1}(1 + x^2) + C \)
- (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \log(1+x) - \log(1-x) + C \)
- (D) \( \log(1 + x^3) + C \)
- (E) \( \log(1 + x^2) + C \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \log(1+x) - \log(1-x) + C \)
View Solution
Question 137:
A train starts from X towards Y at 3 pm (time \( t = 0 \)) with velocity \( v(t) = 10t + 25 \) km per hour, where \( t \) is measured in hours. Then the distance covered by the train at 5 pm (in km) is:
- (A) 70
- (B) 140
- (C) 35
- (D) 60
- (E) 55
Question 138:
The integral \( \int \sqrt{1 + \sin 2x} \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) \( \sin x - \cos x + C \)
- (B) \( \sin x - \csc x + C \)
- (C) \( \tan x - \cot x + C \)
- (D) \( \cos x - \sec x + C \)
- (E) \( \tan x - \sec x + C \)
Question 139:
The integral \( \int xe^x \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) \( xe^x + e^x + C \)
- (B) \( e^x - xe^x + C \)
- (C) \( x + e^x + C \)
- (D) \( xe^x - e^x + C \)
- (E) \( xe^x - x^2e^x + C \)
Question 140:
The integral \( \int e^x \sec x (1 + \tan x) \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) \( e^x \sec x + C \)
- (B) \( e^x \tan x + C \)
- (C) \( e^x (\sec x + \tan x) + C \)
- (D) \( e^x \sec x \tan x + C \)
- (E) \( e^x \sec x + \tan x + C \)
Question 141:
The value of \( \int_0^1 x(1 - x)^{10} \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) \( \frac{1}{110} \)
- (B) \( \frac{1}{132} \)
- (C) \( \frac{1}{156} \)
- (D) \( \frac{1}{90} \)
- (E) \( \frac{5}{156} \)
Question 142:
The value of \( \int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\tan x + \sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x} \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) 0
- (B) 2
- (C) \( \sqrt{2} \)
- (D) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
- (E) \( -2\sqrt{2} \)
Question 143:
The integral \( \int_5^{10} \left\lfloor x \right\rfloor dx \) is equal to (where \( \left\lfloor x \right\rfloor \) denotes the greatest integer function):
- (A) 55
- (B) 45
- (C) 35
- (D) 26
- (E) 5
Question 144:
The integral \( \int_{-2}^4 x^2 |x| \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) 72
- (B) 68
- (C) 64
- (D) 48
- (E) 37
Question 145:
The value of \( \int_{-1}^{1} x^2 \sin x \, dx \) is equal to:
- (A) \( 2\sin 1 \)
- (B) \( 2 \)
- (C) \( 4 \)
- (D) \( -2\sin 1 \)
- (E) \( 0 \)
Question 146:
The area of the region bounded by the curve \( y = 3x^2 \) and the x-axis, between \( x = -1 \) and \( x = 1 \), is:
- (A) 2 sq. units
- (B) 4 sq. units
- (C) \( \frac{55}{27} \) sq. units
- (D) \( \frac{55}{23} \) sq. units
- (E) \( \frac{1}{2} \) sq. units
Question 147:
The order and degree of the following differential equation: \( \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} - 2x = \sqrt{y} + \frac{dy}{dx} \), respectively, are:
- (A) 2, 2
- (B) 2, 1
- (C) 1, 2
- (D) 4, 2
- (E) 1, 1
Question 148:
The solution of the differential equation \( x + y \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 \), given that at \( x = 0 \), \( y = 5 \), is:
- (A) \( x^2 + y^2 = 5y \)
- (B) \( x^2 + 5y^2 = 125 \)
- (C) \( x^2 + y = 5 \)
- (D) \( x^2 + y^2 = 25 \)
- (E) \( 2x^2 + y^2 = 25 \)
Question 149:
The general solution of the differential equation \( (x + y)^2 \frac{dy}{dx} = 1 \) is:
- (A) \( y = \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(x + y) + c \)
- (B) \( y = -(x + y)^{-1} + c \)
- (C) \( y = \frac{1}{3}(x + y)^3 + c \)
- (D) \( y = \sin^{-1}(x + y) + c \)
- (E) \( y = \tan^{-1}(x + y) + c \)
Question 150:
The equation of the curve passing through \( (1, 0) \) and which has slope \( \left( 1 + \frac{y}{x} \right) \) at \( (x, y) \), is:
- (A) \( y = x e^x \)
- (B) \( y = x + \log x \)
- (C) \( y = x - \log x \)
- (D) \( y = x + 2 \log x \)
- (E) \( y = x \log x \)
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