AP POLYCET 2024 Question Paper (Set A) is available for download here. State Board of Technical Education and Training, Andhra Pradesh conducted AP POLYCET 2024 on April 27. Candidates were asked 120 MCQs from Mathematics (60 questions), Physics (30 questions), and Chemistry (30 questions). A total duration of 120 minutes were given to the candidates to complete the AP POLYCET 2024 Question Paper.
AP POLYCET 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Set A)
![]()
SECTION I- MATHEMATICS
Question 1:
140 \(\div\) 210 is a
- (1) terminating decimal
- (2) non-terminating and repeating decimal
- (3) non-terminating and non-repeating decimal
- (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) non-terminating and repeating decimal
View Solution
Question 2:
The remainder when the square of any prime number greater than 3 is divided by 6 is
Question 3:
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- (1) The sum of a rational number and an irrational number is an irrational number.
- (2) The sum of two irrational numbers need not be an irrational number.
- (3) The product of a non-zero rational number and an irrational number is an irrational number.
- (4) The product of two irrational numbers is always an irrational number.
Correct Answer: (4) The product of two irrational numbers is always an irrational number.
View Solution
Question 4:
The HCF of 306 and 657 is
Question 5:
The value of \( \log_2 32 \) is
Question 6:
If \( A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\} \), then which of the following is incorrect?
- (1) \( \{3, 4\} \in A \)
- (2) \( \{3, 4\} \subseteq A \)
- (3) \( \{3, 4\} \subset A \)
- (4) None of these
Question 7:
If \( A \) and \( B \) are the two sets containing 3 and 6 elements respectively, then what can be the maximum number of elements in \( A \cup B \)?
- (1) 9
- (2) 10
- (3) 11
- (4) 12
Question 8:
The number of subsets of the set \( A = \{p, q\} \) is
Question 9:
Which of the following is a polynomial?
- (1) \( x^2 - 6\sqrt{x} + 2 \)
- (2) \( \frac{5}{x^2 - 3x + 1} \)
- (3) \( 5x^2 - 3x + \sqrt{2} \)
- (4) \( 2x^2 - \frac{5}{x} + 3 \)
Question 10:
If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are the zeroes of the polynomial \( f(x) = 6x^2 + x - 2 \), then the sum of the zeroes is
- (1) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
- (2) \( -\frac{1}{6} \)
- (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
- (4) \( -\frac{1}{3} \)
Question 11:
If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial \( ax^2 + bx + c \) (with \( c \neq 0 \)) are equal, then
- (1) \( c \) and \( a \) have opposite signs
- (2) \( c \) and \( a \) have the same signs
- (3) \( b^2 \neq 4ac \)
- (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) \( c \) and \( a \) have opposite signs
View Solution
Question 12:
If \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are the roots of \( 4x^3 - 6x^2 + 7x + 3 = 0 \), then the value of \( \alpha \beta + \beta \gamma + \gamma \alpha \) is
- (1) \( -\frac{7}{4} \)
- (2) \( \frac{7}{4} \)
- (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
- (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
Question 13:
The pair of linear equations \( a_1x + b_1y + c_1 = 0 \) and \( a_2x + b_2y + c_2 = 0 \) has a unique solution, then
- (1) \( \frac{a_1}{a_2} \neq \frac{b_1}{b_2} \)
- (2) \( \frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \frac{c_1}{c_2} \)
- (3) \( \frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} = \frac{c_1}{c_2} \)
- (4) \( \frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{a_1}{a_2} \neq \frac{b_1}{b_2} \)
View Solution
Question 14:
Nimra went to a bank to withdraw ₹2,000. She asked the cashier to give her ₹50 and ₹100 notes only and she got 30 notes in all. How many notes of ₹50 and ₹100 respectively that she received?
- (1) 20, 10
- (2) 15, 15
- (3) 10, 20
- (4) None of these
Question 15:
If 2 is a root of the equation \( x^2 - px + q = 0 \) and \( p^2 = 4q \), then the other root is
- (1) -2
- (2) 2
- (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
- (4) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
Question 16:
The ratio of the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation \( 7x^2 - 12x + 18 = 0 \) is
- (1) \( 7:12 \)
- (2) \( 7:18 \)
- (3) \( 3:2 \)
- (4) \( 2:3 \)
Question 17:
If the area of a rectangle is 112 m\(^2\) and its length is 6 m more than the breadth, then the breadth of the rectangle is
- (1) 8 m
- (2) 14 m
- (3) 10 m
- (4) 12 m
Question 18:
Find the 10th term of the arithmetic progression \( 5, 1, -3, -7, \dots \)
- (1) 31
- (2) -31
- (3) 30
- (4) -30
Question 19:
The sum of the first 10 terms of the arithmetic progression \( 34, 32, 30, \dots \) is
- (1) 200
- (2) 225
- (3) 250
- (4) 275
Question 20:
The 12th term of the geometric progression (G.P.) \( 2, 1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{8}, \dots \) is
- (1) \( \frac{1}{2^9} \)
- (2) \( \frac{1}{2^8} \)
- (3) \( \frac{1}{2^{10}} \)
- (4) \( \frac{1}{2^{11}} \)
Question 21:
Which of the following is a geometric progression?
- (1) \( \frac{1}{2}, 4, 8, 16, \dots \)
- (2) -2, -4, -12, ...
- (3) 3, 4, 6, 12, ...
- (4) \( x, 1, x^2, \dots \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{1}{2}, 4, 8, 16, \dots \)
View Solution
Question 22:
The coordinates of the point \( P \), which is equidistant from the three vertices of the triangle \( \Delta OAB \), as shown in the figure, is
![]()
- (1) \( (x, y) \)
- (2) \( (y, x) \)
- (3) \( \left( \frac{x}{2}, \frac{y}{2} \right) \)
- (4) \( \left( \frac{y}{2}, \frac{x}{2} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \left( \frac{x}{2}, \frac{y}{2} \right) \)
View Solution
Question 23:
In what ratio does the Y-axis divide the line segment joining the points \( P(-4, 2) \) and \( Q(8, 3) \)?
- (1) 3:1
- (2) 1:3
- (3) 2:1
- (4) 1:2
Question 24:
If the centroid of a triangle formed by the points \( (a, b) \), \( (b, c) \), and \( (c, a) \) is at the origin, then \( a^3 + b^3 + c^3 = \)
- (1) \( abc \)
- (2) 0
- (3) \( a + b + c \)
- (4) \( 3abc \)
Question 25:
If the points \( (1, 2) \), \( (-1, k) \) and \( (2, 3) \) are collinear, then the value of \( k \) is
Question 26:
If the slope of the line joining the points \( (4, 2) \) and \( (3, -k) \) is -2, then the value of \( k \) is
Question 27:
In the following figure, if \( DE \parallel BC \), then \( x = \)
![]()
- (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
- (2) \( \sqrt{7} \)
- (3) \( \sqrt{6} \)
- (4) \( \sqrt{5} \)
Question 28:
In \( \triangle ABC \sim \triangle DEF \), the area of \( \triangle ABC = 9 \, cm^2 \) and the area of \( \triangle DEF = 16 \, cm^2 \). If \( BC = 2:1 \), then \( EF = \)
- (1) 2.8 cm
- (2) 4.2 cm
- (3) 2.5 cm
- (4) 4.1 cm
Question 29:
In \( \triangle ABC \), \( DE \parallel BC \), \( \frac{AD}{DB} = \frac{3}{5} \), and \( AC = 5.6 \, cm \), then \( AE = ? \)
- (1) 3 cm
- (2) 5 cm
- (3) 7 cm
- (4) 2.1 cm
Question 30:
In the given figure, PA and PB are the tangents to the circle with center at O. If \( \angle APB = 36^\circ \), then \( \angle AOB = \)
![]()
- (1) 72°
- (2) 134°
- (3) 144°
- (4) 154°
Question 31:
The area of the shaded region in the given figure is
![]()
- (1) \( 4\pi \, sq. units \)
- (2) \( 16 - 4\pi \, sq. units \)
- (3) \( 16 \, sq. units \)
- (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) \( 16 - 4\pi \, \text{sq. units} \)
View Solution
Question 32:
In the given figure, the radius of each outer circle is \( a \), then the radius of the inner circle is
![]()
- (1) \( \sqrt{2} + 1 \)
- (2) \( a\sqrt{2} + 1 \)
- (3) \( \sqrt{2} - 1 \)
- (4) \( a\sqrt{2} - 1 \)
Question 33:
If the length, breadth, and height of a cuboid are 8 cm, 3 cm, and 4 cm respectively, then the total surface area of the cuboid is
- (1) 48 cm\(^2\)
- (2) 72 cm\(^2\)
- (3) 136 cm\(^2\)
- (4) 108 cm\(^2\)
Question 34:
If the volume of a cylinder is 500 m\(^3\) and the area of its base is 25 m\(^2\), then its height (in m) is
- (1) 20
- (2) 15
- (3) 50
- (4) 30
Question 35:
If \( \sec\theta + \tan\theta = k \), then \( \sec\theta - \tan\theta = ? \)
- (1) \( k \)
- (2) \( \frac{1}{k} \)
- (3) \( k^2 \)
- (4) \( \frac{1}{k^2} \)
Question 36:
If \( \sin\alpha + \sin\beta + \sin\gamma = 3 \), then \( \cos\alpha + \cos\beta + \cos\gamma = ? \)
Question 37:
If \( \tan 48^\circ \cdot \tan 23^\circ \cdot \tan 42^\circ \cdot \tan 67^\circ = \tan(A + 30^\circ) \), then the value of \( A \) is
- (1) 30°
- (2) 45°
- (3) 60°
- (4) 15°
Question 38:
If \( a \sin 45^\circ = b \csc 30^\circ \), then the value of \( \frac{a^4}{b^4} \) is
- (1) 1
- (2) \( 2^3 \)
- (3) \( 2^8 \)
- (4) \( 2^6 \)
Question 39:
If \( \sin^2 \theta + \csc^2 \theta = 6 \), then \( \sin \theta + \csc \theta = ? \)
- (1) \( 3\sqrt{2} \)
- (2) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
- (3) \( 4\sqrt{2} \)
- (4) \( \sqrt{2} \)
Question 40:
A tree is broken by wind, its upper part touches the ground at a point 10 meters from the foot of the tree and makes an angle of 45° with the ground. Then what is the entire height of the tree?
- (1) 15 m
- (2) 20 m
- (3) \( 10(1 + \sqrt{2}) \) m
- (4) \( 10 \left( 1 + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right) \) m
Question 41:
If two towers of heights \( h_1 \) and \( h_2 \) subtend angles of 30° and 60° respectively at the midpoint of the line joining their feet, then the ratio of \( h_1 : h_2 \) is
- (1) 2:1
- (2) 1:2
- (3) 3:1
- (4) 1:3
Question 42:
If the probability of guessing the correct answer to a question is \( \frac{x}{12} \) and the probability of not guessing the correct answer is \( \frac{5}{8} \), then the value of \( x \) is
- (1) 4.5
- (2) 4
- (3) 1.2
- (4) 0.5
Question 43:
A box contains 24 balls, of which \( x \) are red, \( 2x \) are white, and \( 3x \) are blue. A ball is selected at random. What is the probability that the selected ball is not red?
- (1) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
- (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
- (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
- (4) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
Question 44:
Two dice are thrown at the same time. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is more than 10?
- (1) \( \frac{1}{36} \)
- (2) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
- (3) \( \frac{1}{26} \)
- (4) \( \frac{1}{13} \)
Question 45:
2 cards of hearts and 4 cards of spades are missing from a pack of 52 cards. A card is drawn at random from the remaining pack. What is the probability of getting a black card?
- (1) \( \frac{22}{52} \)
- (2) \( \frac{46}{52} \)
- (3) \( \frac{24}{52} \)
- (4) \( \frac{46}{52} \)
Question 46:
The average of the observations 10, 20, 65, 102, 108, 115 is
- (1) 50
- (2) 70
- (3) 60
- (4) 40
Question 47:
If 35 is removed from the data \(30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40\), then the median increases by
- (1) 2
- (2) 1.5
- (3) 1
- (4) 0.5
Question 48:
The modal class of the following frequency distribution is
![]()
- (1) 80-100
- (2) 20-40
- (3) 60-80
- (4) 40-60
Question 49:
If the mode and mean of a data are 24 and 60 respectively, then the median of the data is
- (1) 49
- (2) 48
- (3) 47
- (4) 46
Question 50:
The upper limit of the median class of the following frequency distribution is
![]()
- (1) 110
- (2) 90
- (3) 130
- (4) 70
SECTION II- PHYSICS
Question 51:
The C.G.S. unit of heat energy is
- (1) joule
- (2) kelvin
- (3) dioptre
- (4) calorie
Question 52:
If \( 27^\circ C + x = 300 K \), then the value of \( x \) is
- (1) 0 K
- (2) 327 K
- (3) 273 K
- (4) 300 K
Question 53:
The pair of substances which have the same value of specific heat is
- (1) copper, aluminium
- (2) zinc, iron
- (3) ice, kerosene oil
- (4) water, ice
Question 54:
During the process of conversion from liquid to solid, the internal energy of the water
- (1) increases
- (2) decreases
- (3) remains constant
- (4) None of these
Question 55:
Formation of dew and fog is due to the process of
- (1) melting
- (2) freezing
- (3) evaporation
- (4) condensation
Question 56:
40 g of water at 40°C is added to 10 g of water at 80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is
- (1) 48°C
- (2) 40°C
- (3) 120°C
- (4) 64°C
Question 57:
A light ray bends away from normal when it travels from
- (1) air to water
- (2) water to air
- (3) water to glass
- (4) air to glass
Question 58:
If \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \) are the speeds of light in the two media of refractive indices \( n_1 \) and \( n_2 \) respectively, then
- (1) \( \frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_1}{n_2} \)
- (2) \( \frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2}{n_1} \)
- (3) \( \frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_1^2}{n_2^2} \)
- (4) \( \frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2^2}{n_1^2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{v_1}{v_2} = \frac{n_2}{n_1} \)
View Solution
Question 59:
The speed of light in vacuum is \( c \). The speed of light in a medium of refractive index \( \frac{4}{3} \) is
- (1) \( \frac{c}{3} \)
- (2) \( \frac{c}{4} \)
- (3) \( \frac{4c}{3} \)
- (4) \( \frac{3c}{4} \)
Question 60:
The stars appear twinkling. The principle involved in it is
- (1) refraction
- (2) reflection
- (3) total internal reflection
- (4) dispersion
Question 61:
A rectangular tank of depth 4 m is full of water of refractive index \( \frac{4}{3} \). When viewed from the top, the bottom of the tank is seen at a depth of
- (1) 3 m
- (2) 2 m
- (3) 1.33 m
- (4) 1 m
Question 62:
A convex lens gives a virtual image when the object is placed on the principal axis at
- (1) infinity
- (2) centre of curvature
- (3) between focal point and optic centre
- (4) between focal point and centre of curvature
Correct Answer: (3) between focal point and optic centre
View Solution
Question 63:
Irrespective of the position of the object on the principal axis, a concave lens always forms an image of nature
- (1) real, invert
- (2) real, erect
- (3) virtual, erect
- (4) Does not form any image
Question 64:
The lens which is bounded by one-curved surface is
- (1) biconvex
- (2) biconcave
- (3) plano-concave
- (4) concavo-convex
Question 65:
If 25 cm each is the object and image distances due to convex lens, then its focal length is
- (1) 50 cm
- (2) 25 cm
- (3) 15 cm
- (4) 12.5 cm
Question 66:
The angle between paraxial rays and principal axis is
- (1) \( 0^\circ \)
- (2) \( 45^\circ \)
- (3) \( 90^\circ \)
- (4) \( 83^\circ \)
Question 67:
Splitting of white light into VIBGYOR colours is called
- (1) scattering
- (2) dispersion
- (3) total internal reflection
- (4) refraction
Question 68:
The light which has the maximum angle of deviation is
- (1) red
- (2) yellow
- (3) violet
- (4) green
Question 69:
Blue color of the sky is due to the scattering of light by the atmospheric molecules of
- (1) H\(_2\)O
- (2) CO\(_2\)
- (3) H\(_2\)
- (4) N\(_2\) and O\(_2\)
Question 70:
The power of a lens of focal length 20 cm is
- (1) 5 D
- (2) 0.2 D
- (3) 1 D
- (4) 2 D
Question 71:
In hypermetropia defect, the image is formed
- (1) beyond the retina
- (2) before the retina
- (3) on the retina
- (4) does not form an image
Question 72:
For a normal human-eye, 2.5 cm is the distance between
- (1) eye-lens and cornea
- (2) eye-lens and retina
- (3) retina and cornea
- (4) retina and object
Question 73:
In old age, the value of least distance of distinct vision shifts to
- (1) larger value
- (2) smaller value
- (3) Does not change
- (4) None of these
Question 74:
Electric power is the product of current and
- (1) resistance
- (2) charge
- (3) velocity
- (4) potential difference
Question 75:
Three resistors each of 4 \( \Omega \), 0.4 \( \Omega \), and 0.04 \( \Omega \) are connected in series combination. Their equivalent resistance is
- (1) 4 \( \Omega \)
- (2) 4.44 \( \Omega \)
- (3) 4 \( \Omega \)
- (4) 0.44 \( \Omega \)
Question 76:
Pick the correct answer from the following two statements:
(a) Ohm's law is applicable to semiconductors.
(b) Ohm's law is applicable to metallic conductors.
- (1) Only (a) is true
- (2) Only (b) is true
- (3) Both (a) and (b) are true
- (4) Both (a) and (b) are false
Question 77:
6 watt \(\times\) second =
- (1) 6 volt
- (2) 6 ohm
- (3) 6 joule
- (4) 6 coulomb
Question 78:
The relationship between current and voltage is established by the scientist
- (1) Faraday
- (2) Oersted
- (3) Kirchhoff
- (4) Ohm
Question 79:
The electrical energy (in kWh) consumed in operating a bulb of 40 W for 5 hours a day in a month of 30 days is
- (1) 12
- (2) 6
- (3) 3
- (4) 1.5
Question 80:
Which of the following is not a measuring function of a multimeter?
- (1) Charge
- (2) Current
- (3) Voltage
- (4) Resistance
Question 81:
If \( R \) is the resistance of a conductor of length \( l \), then
- (1) \( R \propto \frac{1}{l} \)
- (2) \( R \propto l \)
- (3) \( R \propto \sqrt{l} \)
- (4) \( R \) is independent of \( l \)
Question 82:
Two currents 3 mA and 5 mA are flowing towards the junction in a circuit and three currents 1 mA, 1.5 mA and \( x \) are flowing away. The value of \( x \) (in mA) is
- (1) 8
- (2) 10.5
- (3) 2.5
- (4) 5.5
Question 83:
1 tesla =
- (1) 1 weber
- (2) 1 weber/metre
- (3) 1 weber/metre\(^2\)
- (4) 1 watt/metre\(^2\)
Question 84:
The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction involves the process of
- (1) charging a body
- (2) heating a coil
- (3) producing induced current in a coil
- (4) preventing damages due to overload
Correct Answer: (3) producing induced current in a coil
View Solution
Question 85:
If \( \Delta \Phi \) and \( \Delta t \) are the change in magnetic flux and time respectively, then the induced EMF is
- (1) \( \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} \)
- (2) \( \Delta \Phi \)
- (3) \( \Delta \Phi \cdot \Delta t \)
- (4) \( \frac{\Delta t}{\Delta \Phi} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} \)
View Solution
Question 86:
A freely suspended needle of a magnetic compass comes to rest along the geographic
- (1) north-east direction
- (2) east-west direction
- (3) south-east direction
- (4) north-south direction
Question 87:
An increase in magnetic flux through a coil of 100 turns in 0.1 s is 0.001 Wb. The maximum induced EMF generated in the coil is
- (1) 1 V
- (2) 10 V
- (3) 0.1 V
- (4) 100 V
Question 88:
The magnetic force acting on a moving charge in a magnetic field is the product of three quantities namely
- (1) charge, speed, electromotive force
- (2) charge, magnetic flux, magnetic flux density
- (3) charge, speed, magnetic flux density
- (4) charge, speed, current
Correct Answer: (3) charge, speed, magnetic flux density
View Solution
Question 89:
An auto driver started an auto rickshaw with the help of pulling a rope. The device used by him to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy is
- (1) multimeter
- (2) transformer
- (3) dynamo
- (4) voltmeter
Question 90:
Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction is a consequence of
- (1) conservation of mass
- (2) conservation of linear momentum
- (3) conservation of angular momentum
- (4) conservation of energy
SECTION III- CHEMISTRY
Question 91:
Which one of the following can be used as acid-base indicator to detect acidic or basic nature of solution?
- (1) Turmeric solution
- (2) Litmus
- (3) (1) and (2)
- (4) None of these
Question 92:
If pH of rain water is less than _____, then it is called acid rain.
- (1) 5.6
- (2) 7-6
- (3) 6-6
- (4) 8-6
Question 93:
Tooth enamel is made up of
- (1) calcium sulphate
- (2) calcium chloride
- (3) calcium phosphate
- (4) magnesium sulphate
Question 94:
What do you observe on pouring potassium hydroxide on red and blue litmus papers?
- (1) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns to red
- (2) Red litmus turns to blue and blue litmus remains blue
- (3) Red litmus becomes colorless and blue litmus remains blue
- (4) Red litmus turns to blue and blue litmus turns to red
Correct Answer: (4) Red litmus turns to blue and blue litmus turns to red
View Solution
Question 95:
The maximum number of electrons in M shell is
- (1) 2
- (2) 12
- (3) 18
- (4) 24
Question 96:
Which of the following orbitals does not exist?
- (1) 2p\(^6\)
- (2) 3s\(^1\)
- (3) 4f\(^12\)
- (4) 2d\(^3\)
Question 97:
Niels Bohr received Nobel Prize in
- (1) Chemistry
- (2) Physics
- (3) Biochemistry
- (4) Biophysics
Question 98:
The number of degenerate orbitals present in 4d subshell is
Question 99:
Presence of 3 unpaired electrons in nitrogen can be explained by ____ principle.
- (1) Aufbau
- (2) Pauli
- (3) Hund
- (4) Bohr
Question 100:
Strong ionic bond is formed between ____and _____ group elements.
- (1) I A and II A
- (2) II A and VIII A
- (3) I A and VII A
- (4) I A and VIII A
Question 101:
1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶ (2,8,8) configuration is related to
- (1) P³
- (2) Cl⁻
- (3) S²
- (4) All of these
Question 102:
Lithium, sodium and _____ are Dobereiner's triads.
- (1) S
- (2) Ca
- (3) Cl
- (4) K
Question 103:
IV A group elements are called
- (1) Carbon family
- (2) Chalcogen family
- (3) Nitrogen family
- (4) Boron family
Question 104:
An element 'X' belongs to 2nd group and 3rd period. What is its valency?
Question 105:
Valence Bond Theory was proposed by
- (1) Lewis
- (2) Kossel
- (3) Pauling
- (4) Bohr
Question 106:
Identify the correct statement.
- (1) By losing electron chlorine becomes cation
- (2) By losing electron chlorine becomes anion
- (3) By gaining electron chlorine becomes cation
- (4) By gaining electron chlorine becomes anion
Correct Answer: (4) By gaining electron chlorine becomes anion
View Solution
Question 107:
An element \( ^{13}_{27}X \) forms ionic compound. What is the charge on 'X' in ionic compound?
- (1) +1
- (2) +2
- (3) +3
- (4) +4
Question 108:
Linus Pauling proposed the concept of
- (1) ionic bond
- (2) hydrogen bond
- (3) hybridization
- (4) covalent bond
Question 109:
Electronic configuration of \( O^{2-} \) ion is
- (1) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^4 \)
- (2) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^5 \)
- (3) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6 \)
- (4) \( 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^3 \)
Question 110:
The number of electrons gained by non-metallic element is equal to its
- (1) valency
- (2) group number
- (3) bond angle
- (4) All of these
Question 111:
Reactivity increasing order of the following metals will be
- (1) K, Na, Ca
- (2) K, Ca, Na
- (3) Ca, Na, K
- (4) Na, K, Ca
Question 112:
Poling process is used to
- (1) concentrate the ore
- (2) reduce the ore
- (3) heat the ore with \( O_2 \)
- (4) purify the crude metal
Question 113:
Corrosion of silver results in the formation of
- (1) silver chloride
- (2) pure silver
- (3) silver nitrate
- (4) silver sulphide
Question 114:
During corrosion, a metal will
- (1) be oxidised
- (2) lose electrons
- (3) be reduced
- (4) (1) and (2)
Question 115:
Replacing one hydrogen from \( NH_3 \) by alkyl group will result in the formation of
- (1) aldehyde
- (2) ketone
- (3) amine
- (4) ester
Question 116:
What is the structural formula of simplest ketone?
- (1) \( CH_3 — O — CH_3 \)
- (2) \( CH_3 — NH_2 \)
- (3) \( CH_3 — C — CH_3 \)
- (4) \( CH_3 — C — OH \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{—} \text{O} \text{—} \text{CH}_3 \)
View Solution
Question 117:
Ethene and ethyne differ in the
- (1) number of carbons
- (2) number of bonds
- (3) number of hydrogens
- (4) (2) and (3)
Question 118:
Identify the dimethyl ether.
- (1) \( CH_3 — C — CH_3 \)
- (2) \( CH_3 — O — CH_3 \)
- (3) \( CH_3 — C — OCH_3 \)
- (4) \( CH_3 — C — OH \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \text{CH}_3 \text{—} \text{O} \text{—} \text{CH}_3 \)
View Solution
Question 119:
Saturated hydrocarbons contain
- (1) at least one double bond
- (2) at least one triple bond
- (3) all single bonds
- (4) at least one ionic bond
Question 120:
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are
- (1) closed chain hydrocarbons
- (2) acyclic hydrocarbons
- (3) open chain hydrocarbons
- (4) (2) and (3)
Quick Links:
Previous Years AP POLYCET Question Papers
Comments