TS PGECET 2024 Computer Science and Information Technology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Shivam Yadav

Jun 10, 2025

TS PGECET 2024 Computer Science and Information Technology Question Paper is available for download here. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana Council of Higher Education (TGCHE) conducted TS PGECET 2024 Computer Science and Information Technology on June 11 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 4 PM. TS PGECET Question Paper 2024 consists of 120 MCQ-based questions in total carrying 1 mark each to be attempted in the duration of 2 hours.

TS PGECET 2024 Computer Science and Information Technology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

TS PGECET 2024 CS Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
10-18_07-TS PGECET 2024 Computer Science and Information Technology Question Paper

Question 1:

Let \(X\) follow Binomial distribution with parameters \(12\) and \(p\), let \(q = 1 - p\). If \[ \sum_{x=0}^{12}(x - 12p)^2 \cdot {}^{12}C_x \cdot q^{12 - x} \cdot p^x = \frac{8}{3} \quad and \quad P(X > 10) = \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^K, \, (K > 1), \]
then \(K =\)

  • (1) \(\dfrac{14}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{25}{9}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{16}{7}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{3}{2}\)

Question 2:

The standard deviation of a Poisson distribution is \(\sigma\). If \(P(X = r) = K\), then \(P(X = r + 2) =\)

  • (1) \(\dfrac{4K}{r(r + 2)}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{16K}{(r + 2)(r + 3)}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{4K}{(r + 2)(r + 1)}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{15K}{(r + 1)(r + 2)}\)

Question 3:

A, B, C are three mutually disjoint exhaustive events with \(P(A) \neq 0\), \(P(B) \neq 0\), \(P(C) \neq 0\). \(E\) is any arbitrary event. If \(P(A) = \dfrac{4}{9}\), \(P(B) = \dfrac{2}{9}\), \(P(E|A) = \dfrac{3}{10}\),
\(P(E|B) = \dfrac{5}{10}\), \(P(E|C) = \dfrac{8}{10}\), and \(P(E) = \dfrac{12}{23}\), then \(P(C) =\)

  • (1) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{5}{6}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{3}{4}\)

Question 4:

Let a continuous random variable \(X\) follow Normal distribution with mean \(\mu\) and variance \(\sigma^2\). Let \(Z = \dfrac{X - \mu}{\sigma}\). If \(P(Z > Z_1) = 0.12\) and \(P(Z > Z_2) = 0.76\), then \(P(Z_2 < Z < Z_1) =\)

  • (1) 0.88
  • (2) 0.64
  • (3) 0.38
  • (4) 0.62

Question 5:

If \(f(x)\) is a twice differentiable function such that \(f(0) = f(1) = f'(0) = 0\), then

  • (1) \(f''(x) \neq 0 \ \forall \ x \in (0,1)\)
  • (2) \(f''(x) = 0 \ \forall \ x \in (0,1)\)
  • (3) \(f(x)\) is a constant function
  • (4) \(f''(x) = 0\) for some \(x \in (0,1)\)

Question 6:

The maximum area of a rectangle that can be inscribed in a circle of radius \(R\) is

  • (1) \(4R^2\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}R^2\)
  • (3) \(2R^2\)
  • (4) \(R^2\)

Question 7:

The number of non-differentiable points for the function \(f(x) = \min\left\{x - \lfloor x \rfloor, 1 - x + \lfloor x \rfloor\right\}\) in \((-2, 2)\) is (\(\lfloor x \rfloor\) represents integral part of \(x\))

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 7

Question 8:

For the matrix \[ \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1 & 1
0 & 2 & 1
1 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}, \]
an Eigen vector among the following vectors is

  • (1) \(\begin{bmatrix} 1
    -2
    2 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin{bmatrix} 5
    -2
    -1 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin{bmatrix} 8
    4
    4 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin{bmatrix} 0
    5
    5 \end{bmatrix}\)
4
4 \end{bmatrix}\)
View Solution

Question 9:

\(L\) is a lower triangular matrix with all Principal diagonal elements equal to 1 and \(U\) is an upper triangular matrix such that \[ LU = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 3 & 0
3 & 7 & 1
2 & 8 & 3 \end{bmatrix}, \]
then the Trace of \(L\) + Trace of \(U\) =

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 8

Question 10:

If the Eigenvalues of Skew-Hermitian matrices and Eigenvalues of Hermitian matrices are plotted on Argand plane, then the number of points having amplitude \(\frac{7\pi}{4}\) is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) more than 4
  • (4) infinite in number

Question 11:

Which of the following is idempotent law of propositional logic?

  • (1) \(p \lor p = p\)
  • (2) \(p \land t = p\)
  • (3) \(p \lor t = t\)
  • (4) \(p \lor (\neg p) = t\)

Question 12:

A survey among 100 students shows that out of the three ice cream flavors vanilla, chocolate and strawberry, where 50 like vanilla, 43 like chocolate, 28 like strawberry, 13 like vanilla and chocolate, 11 like chocolate and strawberry, 12 like strawberry and vanilla and 5 like all of them. Find the number of students who like chocolate but not strawberry.

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 62
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 30

Question 13:

Find the number of two-letter words that begin with a vowel.

  • (1) 105
  • (2) 130
  • (3) 546
  • (4) 25

Question 14:

A relation \(R\) on a set \(A\) is a partial order if it is

  • (1) Reflexive, antisymmetric and transitive
  • (2) Reflexive, asymmetric and transitive
  • (3) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive
  • (4) Repetitive, symmetric and transformative

Question 15:

Which diagram is used to represent partial order set?

  • (1) Venn diagram
  • (2) Hasse diagram
  • (3) use case diagram
  • (4) precedence diagram

Question 16:

A circuit in a connected graph is an Eulerian circuit if it contains

  • (1) Every node of the graph
  • (2) Every edge of the graph
  • (3) Every node exactly once
  • (4) Every edge at least once

Question 17:

What is the chromatic number of the complete graph \(K_n\)?

  • (1) One
  • (2) Four
  • (3) \(\dfrac{n}{2}\)
  • (4) \(n\)

Question 18:

Find the number of edges of the wheel graph \(W_n\).

  • (1) \(n - 1\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{n(n - 1)}{2}\)
  • (3) \(2n\)
  • (4) \(n \times 2^{n - 1}\)

Question 19:

Which one of the following is not necessarily a property of a group?

  • (1) Commutativity
  • (2) Associativity
  • (3) Existence of inverse for every element
  • (4) Existence of identity

Question 20:

Which of the following expression is a tautology?

  • (1) \(p \land False\)
  • (2) \(p \land True\)
  • (3) \(p \lor False\)
  • (4) \(p \lor True\)

Question 21:

What is the minimal sum of products form of \(F(A, B, C, D) = AB + \overline{A}BC + \overline{A}B\overline{C}D\)?

  • (1) \(AB + BC + BD\)
  • (2) \(A + B + C + D\)
  • (3) \(\overline{A} + \overline{B} + \overline{C} + D\)
  • (4) \(\overline{C} + \overline{A}C\overline{D} + A\)

Question 22:

\((217)_8\) is equivalent to

  • (1) \((6F)_{16}\)
  • (2) \((8E)_{16}\)
  • (3) \((8F)_{16}\)
  • (4) \((143)_{16}\)

Question 23:

What are the minimum number of gates required to implement Half adder if we have to use only two input NOR gates?

  • (1) Two
  • (2) Three
  • (3) Four
  • (4) Five

Question 24:

The 2’s complement representation of the decimal value \(-15\) is

  • (1) \(1111\)
  • (2) \(11111\)
  • (3) \(111111\)
  • (4) \(10001\)

Question 25:

Which flip flop is commonly used for counters and shift registers?

  • (1) SR flipflop
  • (2) JK flipflop
  • (3) D flipflop
  • (4) T flipflop

Question 26:

Which register contains the data to be written into memory?

  • (1) Memory Register
  • (2) Memory address register
  • (3) Data register
  • (4) Memory buffer register

Question 27:

Which phase of the instruction cycle analyzes the instruction to determine type of operation to be performed?

  • (1) Fetch
  • (2) Decode
  • (3) Execute
  • (4) Write

Question 28:

Which bus is used to support local disk drives and peripherals?

  • (1) SCSI
  • (2) USB
  • (3) Data bus
  • (4) USART

Question 29:

What is the unit of transfer data from main memory to cache memory?

  • (1) Page
  • (2) Block
  • (3) Word
  • (4) Byte

Question 30:

The main memory of the system consists of 16 MB, the cache memory can hold 64 KB and data is transferred in blocks of 4 bytes each. What is the tag size in main memory address for direct mapping cache?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 24

Question 31:

In disk organization, the time taken by the head to reach the beginning of sector is

  • (1) Seek time
  • (2) Access time
  • (3) Track time
  • (4) Rotational delay

Question 32:

Which RAID level describes block interleaved distributed parity?

  • (1) RAID 3
  • (2) RAID 4
  • (3) RAID 5
  • (4) RAID 6

Question 33:

Which type of I/O does NOT use interrupts?

  • (1) Interrupt driven I/O
  • (2) Programmed I/O
  • (3) Direct Memory Access
  • (4) Daisy chaining

Question 34:

Which addressing mode allows to directly include operands in an instruction?

  • (1) Immediate
  • (2) Register
  • (3) Direct
  • (4) Index

Question 35:

Which set of the following instructions is used for program control?

  • (1) HALT, CALL, JUMP
  • (2) MOV, ADD, NMI
  • (3) NMI, HALT, TRAP
  • (4) ADD, SUB, DIV

Question 36:

Which data structure is used in processor scheduling in an operating system?

  • (1) Stack
  • (2) Queue
  • (3) Tree
  • (4) Graph

Question 37:

Which of the following is a binary tree in which all the nodes have either zero or two children?

  • (1) Full binary tree
  • (2) Complete binary tree
  • (3) Static binary tree
  • (4) Dynamic binary tree

Question 38:

What is the minimum number of edges possible in a directed graph having 6 vertices and no self-loops?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 30
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 216

Question 39:

What is the postfix expression of \(P + Q / R * (S - P)\)?

  • (1) PQRSP/-*+
  • (2) +P/Q*R-SP
  • (3) PQRSP/-*+
  • (4) **-/PQRSP

Question 40:

What is return value of \texttt{strcmp() if the two parameters are identical?

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) True

Question 41:

Which operator is used to get value at address stored in a pointer variable?

  • (1) \&
  • (2) \texttt{->}
  • (3) *
  • (4) ||

Question 42:

What is the output of the following program?

#include
int main() {
int fun(int);
int i = fun(10);
printf("%d\n", --i);
return 0;

int fun(int i) {
return (i++);

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 8

Question 43:

How many times does 'Telangana' get printed?

#include
int main() {
int x;
for(x = -1; x <= 10; x++) {
if(x < 5)
continue;
else
break;
printf("Telangana");

return 0;

  • (1) 11 times
  • (2) 10 times
  • (3) Zero times
  • (4) Infinite times

Question 44:

Which C function allows the programmer to move the file pointer to a specific location within a file?

  • (1) fmove
  • (2) fseek
  • (3) fcursor
  • (4) fputc

Question 45:

What will be the output of the program?

#include
int main() {
union var {
int p, q;
u;
u.p = 100;
u.q = 50;
printf("%d\n", u.p);
return 0;

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 50
  • (3) 150
  • (4) Error

Question 46:

Given an array \(A = \{15, 23, 27, 32, 45, 49, 60\}\) and key = 49, what are the mid values (corresponding array elements) in the first and second levels of recursion?

  • (1) 32 and 49
  • (2) 32 and 23
  • (3) 27 and 49
  • (4) 27 and 45

Question 47:

What is the best case time complexity for linear search?

  • (1) \(O(n \log n)\)
  • (2) \(O(\log n)\)
  • (3) \(O(n)\)
  • (4) \(O(1)\)

Question 48:

Which among the following is an external sorting technique?

  • (1) Bubble sort
  • (2) Merge sort
  • (3) Insertion sort
  • (4) Selection sort

Question 49:

How many passes does an insertion sort algorithm take for sorting an array of ‘n’ elements?

  • (1) \(\dfrac{n}{2}\)
  • (2) \(n\)
  • (3) \(n - 1\)
  • (4) \(n + 1\)

Question 50:

Which algorithm strategy is followed by Kruskal's algorithm?

  • (1) Divide and conquer
  • (2) Dynamic programming
  • (3) Greedy
  • (4) Branch and bound

Question 51:

Breadth first search is equivalent to \underline{\hspace{1cm traversal of binary tree

  • (1) Preorder
  • (2) Post order
  • (3) Inorder
  • (4) Level order

Question 52:

What is the worst-case time complexity of depth first search of a graph with ‘V’ nodes and ‘E’ edges?

  • (1) \(O(V + E)\)
  • (2) \(O(V)\)
  • (3) \(O(E)\)
  • (4) \(O(V \times E)\)

Question 53:

Bellman Ford algorithm provides solution for

  • (1) Network congestion problem
  • (2) Single source shortest path problem
  • (3) All pair shortest path problem
  • (4) Sorting problem

Question 54:

Which among the following is not based on divide and conquer?

  • (1) Kruskal algorithm
  • (2) Quicksort
  • (3) Binary search
  • (4) Tower of Hanoi

Question 55:

Which of the following does not represent the language \(\{0, 01\}\)?

  • (1) \(0 + 01\)
  • (2) \(\{0\} \cup \{01\}\)
  • (3) \(\{0\} \cup \{0 1\}\)
  • (4) \(\{0\} \wedge \{01\}\)

Question 56:

How many tuples are present in finite state machine?

  • (1) Four
  • (2) Five
  • (3) Six
  • (4) Three

Question 57:

According to the Chomsky classification, language of finite automata is

  • (1) Type 0
  • (2) Type 1
  • (3) Type 2
  • (4) Type 3

Question 58:

What is the regular expression for all strings starting with ab then any number of a or b and ending with bba?

  • (1) aba*b*bba
  • (2) ab(ab)*bba
  • (3) ab(a+b)*bba
  • (4) ab(a+b)bba

Question 59:

The transition a pushdown automation made by is additionally dependent upon

  • (1) Stack
  • (2) Queue
  • (3) Input tape
  • (4) Terminals

Question 60:

Moore machine is an example of

  • (1) Finite automata without output
  • (2) Finite automata with output
  • (3) Finite automata without input
  • (4) Pushdown automata without input

Question 61:

For a machine to surpass all the letters of alphabets excluding vowels, how many states in DFA would be required?

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 29

Question 62:

A language \(L\) is said to be Turing machine (TM) decidable if

  • (1) TM decides L
  • (2) TM recognizes L
  • (3) TM accepts L
  • (4) L is recursive and TM recognize L

Question 63:

A Turing machine that is able to simulate other Turing machines is known as

  • (1) Nested Turing machine
  • (2) Universal Turing machine
  • (3) Meta Turing machine
  • (4) Composite Turing machine

Question 64:

Choose the correct option when

S1: Initial state of NFA is initial state of DFA

S2: The final state of DFA will be every combination of final set of NFA

  • (1) S1 false, S2 false
  • (2) S1 false, S2 true
  • (3) S1 true, S2 true
  • (4) S1 true, S2 false

Question 65:

Which file is the output of an assembler?

  • (1) Program file
  • (2) Object file
  • (3) Data file
  • (4) Document file

Question 66:

Which derivation is generated by the top-down parser?

  • (1) Right most derivation in reverse
  • (2) Left most derivation
  • (3) Right most derivation
  • (4) Left most derivation in reverse

Question 67:

What is the output of lexical analyzer?

  • (1) String character
  • (2) A syntax tree
  • (3) A set of regular expressions
  • (4) A set of tokens

Question 68:

_____________ is the sequence of characters in a token

  • (1) Lexeme
  • (2) Tokens
  • (3) Morphemes
  • (4) Hyponyms

Question 69:

Which phase of the compiler checks the grammar of the program?

  • (1) Code optimization
  • (2) Semantic analysis
  • (3) Code generation
  • (4) Syntax analysis

Question 70:

Which compiler runs on one machine and generates code for multiple machines?

  • (1) Multi pass compiler
  • (2) Cross compiler
  • (3) Optimized compiler
  • (4) Portable compiler

Question 71:

Which method merges the multiple loops into the single one?

  • (1) Constant folding
  • (2) Loop rolling
  • (3) Loop fusion
  • (4) Loop unrolling

Question 72:

Which optimization technique is used to reduce the multiple jumps?

  • (1) Local optimization
  • (2) Pigeonhole optimization
  • (3) Peephole optimization
  • (4) Global code optimization

Question 73:

Which among the following is used in various phases of the compiler?

  • (1) Record
  • (2) Variable
  • (3) Symbol table
  • (4) Shift table

Question 74:

Which of the following is NOT a function of the shift-reduce parser?

  • (1) Reduce
  • (2) Accept
  • (3) Go
  • (4) Shift

Question 75:

When a process is waiting to be assigned to a processor, then it is in

  • (1) Waiting state
  • (2) Running state
  • (3) Ready state
  • (4) Blocked state

Question 76:

Which system call is used to create a new process?

  • (1) New
  • (2) Process
  • (3) Fork
  • (4) Create process

Question 77:

In client-server system communication, _______ is defined as an endpoint for communication

  • (1) Socket
  • (2) Procedure call
  • (3) Shared memory
  • (4) Message passing

Question 78:

In Operating system, unlimited threads could exhaust system resources. Which among the following is a solution to this issue?

  • (1) Buffering
  • (2) Thread Priorities
  • (3) Thread pool
  • (4) Thread kill

Question 79:

What is the average waiting time for the following processes using round robin scheduling with a time quantum of 4 ms?

Process  Burst Time
P1                24
P2                  3
P3                  3

  • (1) 5.66 ms
  • (2) 4 ms
  • (3) 20 ms
  • (4) 8.33 ms

Question 80:

Threads of a multithreaded program can share

  • (1) Stack variables
  • (2) Heap variables
  • (3) Register variables
  • (4) Local variables

Question 81:

The dining philosophers problem is considered as

  • (1) A classic Synchronization problem
  • (2) A classic Coherence problem
  • (3) A classic Starvation problem
  • (4) A classic deadlock detection problem

Question 82:

Which of the following scheme of virtual memory will never bring a page until it is required?

  • (1) Swapping
  • (2) Paging
  • (3) Demand paging
  • (4) Pure demand paging

Question 83:

Choose the correct set of file extensions for archive

  • (1) arc, zip, tar
  • (2) mp3, zip, exe
  • (3) txt, bin, arc
  • (4) lib, pdf, doc

Question 84:

Which disk scheduling algorithm is better for systems that places a heavy load on the disk and less likely to cause starvation problem?

  • (1) SCAN
  • (2) FCFS
  • (3) SSTF
  • (4) SJF

Question 85:

Which data model is required for conceptual data design?

  • (1) Physical model
  • (2) ER model
  • (3) Semantic mode
  • (4) Network model

Question 86:

Which is the notation for weak entity set in ER diagram?

  • (1) Dashed rectangle
  • (2) Double rectangle
  • (3) Dashed diamond
  • (4) Double eclipse

Question 87:

Which of the following is a binary operator in Relational Algebra?

  • (1) Selection
  • (2) Projection
  • (3) Division
  • (4) Rename

Question 88:

Which operator can make a tuple relational query as an unsafe query?

  • (1) AND
  • (2) OR
  • (3) IMPLIES
  • (4) NOT

Question 89:

First Normal Form is based on the concept of

  • (1) Atomic attribute
  • (2) Partial dependency
  • (3) Functional dependency
  • (4) Attribute closure

Question 90:

Which of the following is the main reason for performing schema refinement?

  • (1) Duplication
  • (2) Redundancy
  • (3) Concurrency
  • (4) Indexing

Question 91:

Which is not a desirable property for a database transaction?

  • (1) Atomicity
  • (2) Isolation
  • (3) Integrity
  • (4) Durability

Question 92:

Which of the following protocol is the lock based mechanism for concurrency control?

  • (1) Two Phase lock protocol
  • (2) Timestamp based protocol
  • (3) Validation based protocol
  • (4) Time lock protocol

Question 93:

Which file organization is best suited for insertion operation only?

  • (1) Heap file
  • (2) Sorted file
  • (3) Ordered file
  • (4) Hash file

Question 94:

Which is a dynamic tree based indexing structure for database?

  • (1) ISAM
  • (2) B+
  • (3) Linear probing
  • (4) Extendible hashing

Question 95:

Which network connect the individual networks at different sites into one logical network?

  • (1) city network
  • (2) local area network
  • (3) virtual private network
  • (4) company wide network

Question 96:

Which is a popular standard for wireless LANs?

  • (1) IEEE802.11
  • (2) ACM802.11
  • (3) IEEE756
  • (4) ACM756

Question 97:

Choose the correct set of protocols of application layer of TCP/IP model

  • (1) DSL, SONET, Ethernet
  • (2) IP, TCP, UDP
  • (3) IP, ICMP, RTP
  • (4) HTTP, SMTP, DNS

Question 98:

Which of the following is an error correcting code used in the data link layer?

  • (1) Hamming code
  • (2) Binary code
  • (3) Bytecode
  • (4) Unicode

Question 99:

In which network each packet is routed independently?

  • (1) virtual circuit network
  • (2) datagram network
  • (3) TCP network
  • (4) Session network

Question 100:

In which routing algorithm, each router maintains a routing table containing information about all other routers in the network?

  • (1) Flooding
  • (2) Dijkstra’s
  • (3) Distance vector
  • (4) Warshall’s

Question 101:

Which mechanism converts human readable domain names into IP addresses?

  • (1) Domain Name System
  • (2) IP address map
  • (3) Domain Name Address
  • (4) Tunneling

Question 102:

Which computer security object covers the concept of privacy?

  • (1) Integrity
  • (2) Availability
  • (3) Confidentiality
  • (4) Nonrepudiation

Question 103:

Which of the following is a passive attack to the network?

  • (1) Masquerade
  • (2) Traffic analysis
  • (3) Reply
  • (4) Denial of service

Question 104:

What is the size of the key in the DES algorithm for security?

  • (1) 32 bits
  • (2) 30 bytes
  • (3) 56 bits
  • (4) 64 bytes

Question 105:

Which UML diagram is required for client requirement modeling?

  • (1) Use case
  • (2) Class
  • (3) Object
  • (4) Sequence

Question 106:

Which testing strategy considers the entire structure of a program?

  • (1) Black box testing
  • (2) Glass box testing
  • (3) Systems testing
  • (4) Alpha testing

Question 107:

Which software process model is trending with the concepts of Sprint and scrum?

  • (1) Spiral
  • (2) RAD
  • (3) Agile
  • (4) Django

Question 108:

Choose the correct set of design concepts

  • (1) Modularity, pattern, architecture, refactoring
  • (2) Architecture, risk mitigation, design pattern, testing
  • (3) Requirement, coding, testing, design
  • (4) Design, architecture, pattern, metrics

Question 109:

Which pair of UML diagrams are isomorphic?

  • (1) class and component
  • (2) class and object
  • (3) use case and collaboration
  • (4) collaboration and sequence

Question 110:

Which of the following is NOT a web browser?

  • (1) Safari
  • (2) Chrome
  • (3) Edge
  • (4) Android

Question 111:

The function setcookie() is used to

  • (1) Enable cookie support
  • (2) Declare cookie variables
  • (3) Store data in cookie variables
  • (4) Display cookie variables

Question 112:

Which operator is used to allocate memory to array variables in JavaScript?

  • (1) new
  • (2) malloc
  • (3) calloc
  • (4) free

Question 113:

What is the use of XPATH?

  • (1) To address the server
  • (2) To store the IP address of this server
  • (3) To address the document by specifying a location path
  • (4) To address the data center

Question 114:

What is document object model?

  • (1) A coding style
  • (2) A parser
  • (3) A specification
  • (4) A database model

Question 115:

Which is the correct syntax for declaring a variable in JSP?

  • (1) \texttt{<%= declaration %>}
  • (2) \texttt{<% declaration %>}
  • (3) \texttt{<%! declaration %>}
  • (4) \texttt{<% \# declaration %>}

Question 116:

Which element is the root element of a SOAP message?

  • (1) SOAP: Envelope
  • (2) SOAP: Cover
  • (3) SOAP: Header
  • (4) SOAP: ROOT

Question 117:

Which of the following allows web pages to be updated asynchronously by exchanging data between web client and server?

  • (1) AJAX
  • (2) XSLT
  • (3) XQUERY
  • (4) SOAP

Question 118:

Which provides a method to avoid element name conflicts in XML?

  • (1) XML DTD
  • (2) XML schema
  • (3) XML namespace
  • (4) XML validator

Question 119:

What is the purpose of DTD?

  • (1) To define the structure and the legal elements and attributes of an XML document
  • (2) To avoid element and attribute name conflicts
  • (3) To access and manipulate XML document
  • (4) To store and query XML data


*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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