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GPAT 2024 Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

Collegedunia Team

May 15, 2025

GPAT 2024 Question Paper is available for download here. National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBE) conducted GPAT 2024 exam on June 8, 2024. GPAT 2024 question paper consists a total of 125 questions divided among 5 sections.

GPAT 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

GATE 2024 CSE Question Paper PDF  download iconDownload Check Solutions

GPAT 2024 Questions with Solutions

SECTION A

Question 1:

The below structure represents the drug: 

drug

  • (A) Isoprenaline
  • (B) Amphetamine
  • (C) Norepinephrine
  • (D) Salbutamol
Correct Answer: (A) Isoprenaline
View Solution

Question 2:

Chikusetsu saponin is present in:

  1. Senega
  2. Quillia
  3. Ginseng
  4. Liquorice
Correct Answer: (3) Ginseng
View Solution

Question 3:

What is the best time to collect the medicinal bark material?

  1. Post flowering
  2. Before the leaf falls
  3. Pre flowering
  4. After the leaf falls
Correct Answer: (4) After the leaf falls
View Solution

Question 4:

Which of the following steps are not involved in gravimetric analysis:

  1. Precipitation
  2. Indicator
  3. Digestion
  4. Filtration
Correct Answer: (2) Indicator
View Solution

Question 5:

Which of the following is a meta directing group?

  1. F
  2. NHCH3
  3. NH2
  4. CF3
Correct Answer: (4) CF3
View Solution

Question 6:

The Wilson's disease is a rare inherited disorder due to accumulation in brain, liver, and other vital organs of:

  1. Iodine
  2. Copper
  3. Iron
  4. Calcium
Correct Answer: (2) Copper
View Solution

Question 7:

The starting raw material for synthesis of lignocaine is:

  1. 2,6-Xylidine
  2. p-Nitroacetophenone
  3. 4-Amino-3-Nitroanisole
  4. 4-Chlorobenzyl cyanide
Correct Answer: (1) 2,6-Xylidine
View Solution

Question 8:

Coating of Eudragit NE40D on tablets is done to prepare:

  1. Sublingual tablets
  2. IR tablets
  3. CR tablets
  4. Buccal tablets
Correct Answer: (3) CR tablets
View Solution

Question 9:

During compression of tablets, dwell time is:

  1. Time it takes for the punches to punch tablet
  2. Time it takes for the punches to stop moving vertically and to achieve maximum penetration in the die under the primary compression rollers
  3. Time it takes for the punches to eject the tablets
  4. Time it takes for the punches to eject tablet under the primary compression rollers
Correct Answer: (2) Time it takes for the punches to stop moving vertically and to achieve maximum penetration in the die under the primary compression rollers
View Solution

Question 10:

According to the SAR of Chloroquine, electron:

  1. Withdrawing group at 6th position of the quinoline ring is important for the inhibition of hemozoin formation
  2. Donating group at 7th position of the quinoline ring is important for the inhibition of hemozoin formation
  3. Donating group at 6th position of the quinoline ring is important for the inhibition of hemozoin formation
  4. Withdrawing group at 7th position of the quinoline ring is important for the inhibition of hemozoin formation
Correct Answer: (4) Withdrawing group at 7th position of the quinoline ring is important for the inhibition of hemozoin formation
View Solution

Question 11:

Size of a pilot plant batch is:

  1. 1⁄10th of marketing batch
  2. 1⁄10th of production batch
  3. 1⁄4th of marketing batch
  4. 1⁄4th of production batch
Correct Answer: (2) 1⁄10th of production batch
View Solution

Question 12:

Nitrostat® is an example of:

  1. CR tablet
  2. Bolus tablet
  3. Sublingual tablet
  4. Effervescent tablet
Correct Answer: (3) Sublingual tablet
View Solution

Question 13:

The dried juice of Pterocarpus marsupium belongs to the family:

  1. Leguminosae
  2. Asteraceae
  3. Rosaceae
  4. Liliaceae
Correct Answer: (1) Leguminosae
View Solution

Question 14:

Spin Quantum number of 13C NMR is:

  1. 1⁄4
  2. 1⁄2
  3. 3⁄2
  4. 5⁄2
Correct Answer: (2) 1⁄2
View Solution

Question 15:

The rate limiting step for the absorption of controlled release tablet is the:

  1. Metabolism of the drug
  2. Excretion of the drug
  3. Dissolution of the drug
  4. Distribution of the drug
Correct Answer: (3) Dissolution of the drug
View Solution

Question 16:

Which antibiotic undergoes light catalysed autoxidation:

  1. Polyene antibiotics
  2. Beta lactum antibiotics
  3. Sugar derived antibiotics
  4. Macrolide antibiotics
Correct Answer: (1) Polyene antibiotics
View Solution

Question 17:

Which of the following is not a method for solubility enhancement:

  1. Crystallization
  2. Co-solvency
  3. Salt formation
  4. Hydrotropy
Correct Answer: (1) Crystallization
View Solution

Question 18:

Schedule T of Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 deals with:

  1. GMP for ASU drugs
  2. GLP and requirement of premises and equipments
  3. GMP for Homeopathy medicine
  4. GMP for Pharmaceutical product
Correct Answer: (1) GMP for ASU drugs
View Solution

Question 19:

The key intermediate for the biosynthesis of C6-C3 units is:

  1. Pyruvic acid
  2. Shikimic acid
  3. Dehydroquinic acid
  4. Mevalonic acid
Correct Answer: (2) Shikimic acid
View Solution

Question 20:

Rancidity of oil is detected by:

  1. Saponification value
  2. Iodine value
  3. Peroxide value
  4. Acid value
Correct Answer: (3) Peroxide value
View Solution

Question 21:

Which one of the following enzymes comprises a major part of enzyme-linked receptors:

  1. Receptor Histidine Kinase
  2. Receptor Threonine Phosphatase
  3. Receptor Serine Phosphatase
  4. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
Correct Answer: (4) Receptor Tyrosine Kinase.
View Solution

Question 22:

Core tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate has been administered to a patient. Where do you expect the drug to be released:

  1. Liver
  2. Intestine
  3. Oral cavity
  4. Stomach
Correct Answer: (2) Intestine.
View Solution

Question 23:

Examples of BCS class III drugs are:

  1. Acyclovir, Atenolol, Captopril
  2. Taxol, Ellagic acid, Aspirin
  3. Aspirin, Paracetamol, Amoxycillin
  4. Chloroquine, Diltiazem, Metoprolol
Correct Answer: (1) Acyclovir, Atenolol, Captopril
View Solution

Question 24:

The bloom strength is directly proportional to:

  1. Measure of the strength and stiffness of the gelatin
  2. Density
  3. Molecular weight
  4. Viscosity
Correct Answer: (3) Molecular weight
View Solution

Question 25:

Famotidine contains:

  1. Thiazole ring
  2. Imidazole ring
  3. Pyrrole ring
  4. Furane ring
Correct Answer: (1) Thiazole ring
View Solution

SECTION B

Question 1:

An elixir contains 47% v/v alcohol, what is the proof spirit according to USP:

  1. 70%
  2. 82%
  3. 63%
  4. 91%
Correct Answer: (2) 82%
View Solution

Question 2:

Alfa Alfa belongs to which of the following families:

  1. Convolvulaceae
  2. Leguminosae
  3. Liliaceae
  4. Acanthaceae
Correct Answer: (2) Leguminosae
View Solution

Question 3:

Name the following drug molecule:
Drug Molecule

  1. Mechlorethamine
  2. Chlorambucil
  3. Vincristine
  4. 6-Mercaptopurine
Correct Answer: (1) Mechlorethamine
View Solution

Question 4:

The biological name of Indian Bdellium is:

  1. Commiphora mukul
  2. Commiphora berryi
  3. Commiphora wightii
  4. Commiphora molmol
Correct Answer: (3) Commiphora wightii
View Solution

Question 5:

According to Oppenauer Oxidation reaction, oxidation of secondary alcohol to ketone by reagent (X) in acetone takes place, what is "X":Chemical Reaction

  1. Aluminium Hydroxide
  2. Amalgamated Zinc and Conc. HCl
  3. Conc. H2SO4
  4. Aluminium t-butoxide
Correct Answer: (4) Aluminium t-butoxide
View Solution

Question 6:

Which of the following climatic zones can be categorized into the hot and dry zone?

  1. Zone-II
  2. Zone-I
  3. Zone-III
  4. Zone-IV
Correct Answer: (3) Zone-III
View Solution

Question 7:

The IUPAC name of tartaric acid is:

  1. 1,3-dihydroxybutane-1,4-dioic acid
  2. 2,3-dihydroxybutane-1,4-dioic acid
  3. 2,3-dihydroxy-4-butanoic acid
  4. 2,2-dihydroxy-4-butanoic acid
Correct Answer: (2) 2,3-dihydroxybutane-1,4-dioic acid
View Solution

Question 8:

H1 receptor protein in humans is made up of:

  1. 487 Aminoacids
  2. 390 Aminoacids
  3. 445 Aminoacids
  4. 359 Aminoacids
Correct Answer: (1) 487 Aminoacids
View Solution

Question 9:

Based on the rheological behavior of fluid, all of the following shows time independent property, except:

  1. Plastic
  2. Anti-thixotropic
  3. Pseudoplastic
  4. Non-newtonian
Correct Answer: (2) Anti-thixotropic
View Solution

Question 10:

Etoposide and Teniposide are the semi-synthetic derivatives of:

  1. Podophyllotoxin
  2. Digoxin
  3. Vincristine
  4. Taxol
Correct Answer: (1) Podophyllotoxin
View Solution

Question 11:

Which of the following is/are in-process QC test(s) for tablets:

  1. Zeta-sizing Test
  2. Hardness, Friability, Average weight
  3. Drug content, Puncture Test
  4. Dissolution Test
Correct Answer: (2) Hardness, Friability, Average weight
View Solution

Question 12:

Which is the active form of Ganciclovir?

  1. Phosphate
  2. Tetraphosphate
  3. Biphosphate
  4. Triphosphate
Correct Answer: (4) Triphosphate
View Solution

Question 13:

Which of the following volatile oils are heavier than water:

  1. Cumin
  2. Cinnamon
  3. Fennel
  4. Lemongrass
Correct Answer: (2) Cinnamon
View Solution

Question 14:

Which of the following mills is based on the mechanism of impact and attrition for size reduction:

  1. Roller mill
  2. Fluid energy mill
  3. Hammer mill
  4. Colloid mill
Correct Answer: (2) Fluid energy mill
View Solution

Question 15:

Which of the following is Phase-II metabolism reaction:

  1. Reduction
  2. Acetylation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Oxidation
Correct Answer: (2) Acetylation
View Solution

Question 16:

Antioxidant which is obtained from a desert plant and shows synergistic action with citric acid is:

  1. Maleic acid
  2. BHA
  3. Tocopherols
  4. Nordihydroguaiaretic acid (NDGA)
Correct Answer: (4) Nordihydroguaiaretic acid (NDGA)
View Solution

Question 17:

Calculate the λmax of the following molecule:

Molecule Image

  1. 283 nm
  2. 273 nm
  3. 234 nm
  4. 244 nm
Correct Answer: (2) 273 nm
View Solution

Question 18:

The most suitable test for digitoxose is:

  1. Hager's test
  2. Dragendrof's test
  3. Baljet test
  4. Keller-Kiliani
Correct Answer: (4) Keller-Kiliani
View Solution

Question 19:

Which of the following protective colloids has a high gold number?

  1. Acacia
  2. Tragacanth
  3. Albumin
  4. Gelatin
Correct Answer: (2) Tragacanth
View Solution

Question 20:

The equivalent weight of Potassium permanganate in acidic medium is:

  1. 31.6
  2. 51.6
  3. 41.6
  4. 21.6
Correct Answer: (1) 31.6
View Solution

Question 21:

Match the following disease with their test for detection:

Disease Diagnostic tests
P. Tuberculosis (i) Lepromin test
Q. AIDS (ii) ELISA
R. Syphilis (iii) Mantoux test
S. Leprosy (iv) Kahn's test
  1. P(iv), Q(ii), R(iii), S(i)
  2. P(iii), Q(ii), R(iv), S(i)
  3. P(i), Q(ii), R(iii), S(iv)
  4. P(iv), Q(i), R(ii), S(iii)
Correct Answer: (4) P(iv), Q(i), R(ii), S(iii)
View Solution

Question 22:

Which of the following type of viscometer is used for the measurement of viscosity of a Newtonian fluid:

  1. Cup and bob viscometer
  2. Brookfield's viscometer
  3. Pycnometer
  4. Ostwald viscometer
Correct Answer: (4) Ostwald viscometer
View Solution

Question 23:

The composition of "Lindlar catalyst" is:

  1. Amalgamated Zinc and HCl
  2. NH2NH2 and KOH
  3. Palladium with calcium carbonate
  4. Palladium with Sodium carbonate
Correct Answer: (3) Palladium with calcium carbonate
View Solution

Question 24:

5-Fluorouracil, an anti-metabolite used in cancer treatment, is activated to:

  1. 5-fluoro-2-oxyuridylic acid
  2. 3-fluoro-3-deoxyuridylic acid
  3. 3-fluoro-3-oxyuridylic acid
  4. 5-fluoro-2-deoxyuridylic acid
Correct Answer: (4) 5-fluoro-2-deoxyuridylic acid
View Solution

Question 25:

Which of the following drugs has a 1,3,4-thiadiazole ring system?

  1. Dichlorophenamide
  2. Spironolactone
  3. Acetazolamide
  4. Furosemide
Correct Answer: (3) Acetazolamide
View Solution

SECTION C

Question 1:

Leprosy is a:

  1. Bacterial disease
  2. Viral disease
  3. Fungal disease
  4. Metazoal disease
Correct Answer: (1) Bacterial disease
View Solution

Question 2:

The appendicular skeleton in an adult consists of:

  1. 126 bones
  2. 206 bones
  3. 80 bones
  4. 120 bones
Correct Answer: (1) 126 bones
View Solution

Question 3:

Histogram can be drawn only for:

  1. Cumulative frequency distribution
  2. Discrete frequency distribution
  3. Continuous frequency distribution
  4. Relative frequency distribution
Correct Answer: (3) Continuous frequency distribution
View Solution

Question 4:

Murmurs are generally heard in disorders affecting the following:

  1. SA nodes
  2. Pulmonary vein
  3. AV nodes
  4. Heart valves
Correct Answer: (4) Heart valves
View Solution

Question 5:

Which of the following is first prodrug for sulfonamide:

  1. Prontocil
  2. Sulfamidochrysodine
  3. Sulfatrim
  4. Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: (1) Prontocil
View Solution

Question 6:

Which oral hypoglycemic agent increases the levels of incretin hormone by inhibiting the enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4):

  1. Metformin
  2. Pioglitazone
  3. Sitagliptin
  4. Glipizide
Correct Answer: (3) Sitagliptin
View Solution

Question 7:

Biological activity of synthetic adrenaline is almost:

  1. 25% of S-adrenaline
  2. 25% of R-adrenaline
  3. 50% of S-adrenaline
  4. 50% of Natural R-adrenaline
Correct Answer: (4) 50% of Natural R-adrenaline
View Solution

Question 8:

Central Government approved factory premises where Opium alkaloids are processed is situated at:

  1. Ghazipur and Kota
  2. New Delhi and Ghaziabad
  3. Gwalior and Kota
  4. Neemuch and Ghazipur
Correct Answer: (4) Neemuch and Ghazipur
View Solution

Question 9:

Tetracycline undergoes epimerization at C4 between pH 4-8 to give:

  1. Isotetracycline
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Epitetracycline
  4. Nortetracycline
Correct Answer: (4) Nortetracycline
View Solution

Question 10:

The etiology of jaundice could be haemolytic anaemia if:

  1. Unconjugated bilirubin is found equal to conjugated bilirubin
  2. Increase in IgE level
  3. Conjugated bilirubin is found more than unconjugated bilirubin
  4. Unconjugated bilirubin is found more than conjugated bilirubin
Correct Answer: (4) Unconjugated bilirubin is found more than conjugated bilirubin
View Solution

Question 11:

Precursor for corticosteroids synthesis is:

  1. Phenanthrene
  2. 1,2-Cyclopentophenanthrene
  3. 1,2-Cyclopentodihydrophenanthrene
  4. Cholesterol
Correct Answer: (4) Cholesterol
View Solution

Question 12:

Which one of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of niacin:

  1. Anemia
  2. Night Blindness
  3. Pellagra
  4. Scurvy
Correct Answer: (3) Pellagra
View Solution

Question 13:

Enzyme commonly targeted by drugs to treat hypertension is:

  1. Cyclooxygenase (COX)
  2. HMG-CoA reductase
  3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
  4. Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
Correct Answer: (3) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
View Solution

Question 14:

How many optical isomers are possible for lactic acid:

  1. 4
  2. 0
  3. 6
  4. 2
Correct Answer: (4) 2
View Solution

Question 15:

If one event is unaffected by the outcome of another event, the two events are said to be:

  1. Mutually exclusive
  2. Dependent
  3. Either dependent or independent
  4. Independent
Correct Answer: (4) Independent
View Solution

Question 16:

Which functional group in drug molecules is most likely to undergo phase I metabolic oxidation by cytochrome P450 enzymes:

  1. Ester group
  2. Amide group
  3. Hydroxyl group
  4. Methyl group
Correct Answer: (4) Methyl group
View Solution

Question 17:

Which ring of warfarin is essential for its therapeutic activity:

  1. Purine
  2. Pyrimidine
  3. Lactone
  4. Coumarin
Correct Answer: (4) Coumarin
View Solution

Question 18:

Following are the examples of negative feedback system except:

  1. Body temperature regulation
  2. Blood glucose maintenance
  3. Blood clotting
  4. Blood pressure maintenance
Correct Answer: (3) Blood clotting
View Solution

Question 19:

Which of the following is called as cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity:

  1. Type II hypersensitivity
  2. Type I hypersensitivity
  3. Type III hypersensitivity
  4. Type IV hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: (4) Type IV hypersensitivity
View Solution

Question 20:

Which ionization technique in mass spectrometry is most suitable for large biomolecules like proteins:

  1. Chemical Ionization (CI)
  2. Physical Ionization (PI)
  3. Electron Impact (EI)
  4. Electrospray Ionization (ESI)
Correct Answer: (4) Electrospray Ionization (ESI)
View Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the human placenta:

  1. Estrogen
  2. hCG
  3. LH
  4. Progesterone
Correct Answer: (3) LH
View Solution

Question 22:

Which of the following is an aryl acetic acid derivative:

  1. Salsalate
  2. Ibuprofen
  3. Aspirin
  4. Mefenamic acid
Correct Answer: (2) Ibuprofen
View Solution

Question 23:

Melatonin is secreted by:

  1. Thyrotrophs
  2. Gonadotrophs
  3. Pineal gland
  4. Adrenal gland
Correct Answer: (3) Pineal gland
View Solution

Question 24:

Which hormone stimulates red blood cell production:

  1. Vasopressin
  2. Erythropoietin
  3. Erythrocytin
  4. Prolactin
Correct Answer: (2) Erythropoietin
View Solution

Question 25:

Which of the following drug does NOT require therapeutic drug monitoring:

  1. Digitoxin
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Gentamicin
  4. Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: (4) Acetaminophen
View Solution

SECTION D

Question 1:

The short-acting anticholinesterase drug is:

  1. Physostigmine
  2. Edrophonium
  3. Ecothiophate
  4. Neostigmine
Correct Answer: (2) Edrophonium
View Solution

Question 2:

Which among the following is an example of a high shear mixer:

  1. Turbine mixer
  2. Jet mixer
  3. Sigma blade mixer
  4. Nauta mixer
Correct Answer: (3) Sigma blade mixer
View Solution

Question 3:

In a homologous series of any general anesthetic, increasing the chain length increases the lipid solubility and produces a corresponding increase in anesthetic potency, is proposed by:

  1. John Pemberton
  2. Meyer - Overton
  3. Hubert Humphrey
  4. Meyer - Philip
Correct Answer: (2) Meyer - Overton
View Solution

Question 4:

Influenza viruses are RNA viruses and belong to which family:

  1. Orthomyxoviridae
  2. Papoviridae
  3. Retroviridae
  4. Parvoviridae
Correct Answer: (1) Orthomyxoviridae
View Solution

Question 5:

Two drugs producing the same clinical effects and safety profile when administered to patients are considered:

  1. Minimum Toxic Concentration (MTC)
  2. Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC)
  3. Therapeutic equivalent
  4. Therapeutic window
Correct Answer: (3) Therapeutic equivalent
View Solution

Question 6:

Aerobic dehydrogenase in biological oxidation contains:

  1. NAD
  2. NADH
  3. NADP
  4. FMN & FAD
Correct Answer: (4) FMN & FAD
View Solution

Question 7:

Match the following antibodies with their correct description:

Antibody Description
P. IgE (i) Cross the placenta
Q. IgG (ii) Dominant antibody produced in immune responses
R. IgM (iii) It is found in the mother's milk
S. IgA (iv) Responsible for autoimmune responses including allergies
  1. P(i), Q(iii), R(ii), S(iv)
  2. P(i), Q(ii), R(iii), S(iv)
  3. P(iv), Q(ii), R(iii), S(i)
  4. P(iv), Q(i), R(ii), S(iii)
Correct Answer: (4) P(iv), Q(i), R(ii), S(iii)
View Solution

Question 8:

Plasma protein bound drugs are:

  1. Pharmacodynamically active
  2. Pharmacokinetically inert
  3. Pharmacokinetically and Pharmacodynamically inert
  4. Pharmacodynamically inert
Correct Answer: (4) Pharmacodynamically inert
View Solution

Question 9:

Which of the following equipment measures weight variation using reflected energy:

  1. Rotofill
  2. Vericap-1200
  3. Rotosort
  4. Rotoweight
Correct Answer: (4) Rotoweight
View Solution

Question 10:

Which among the following is not the process of drug degradation:

  1. Photolysis
  2. Decarboxylation
  3. Hemolysis
  4. Hydrolysis
Correct Answer: (3) Hemolysis
View Solution

Question 11:

The term of a patent granted under the Indian Patent Act is:

  1. 20 Years
  2. 10 Years
  3. 30 Years
  4. 40 Years
Correct Answer: (1) 20 Years
View Solution

Question 12:

Choose the incorrect statement regarding Cathode rays:

  1. Cathode rays produce X-rays
  2. Cathode rays are electromagnetic waves
  3. Cathode rays travel in a straight route
  4. Cathode rays are fast electrons
Correct Answer: (2) Cathode rays are electromagnetic waves
View Solution

Question 13:

Among the following, which is known as "SPIRIT OF SALT”?

  1. Nitric acid
  2. Boric acid
  3. Hydrochloric acid
  4. Thioglycolic acid
Correct Answer: (3) Hydrochloric acid
View Solution

Question 14:

Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200°C gives:

  1. Butter
  2. Vanaspati ghee
  3. Cheese
  4. Margarine
Correct Answer: (4) Margarine
View Solution

Question 15:

As per Bronsted-Lowry concept, acid is defined as:

  1. Electron pair acceptor
  2. Any substance/molecule that can accept a proton
  3. Any substance/molecule that can donate a proton
  4. Electron pair donor
Correct Answer: (3) Any substance/molecule that can donate a proton
View Solution

Question 16:

Which of the following is a correct expression of average particle size with the value of p = 1 (size index) and frequency index f = 2:

A B C D
din= Σnd2⁄Σnd3 din= Σnd2⁄Σnd2 dsl= Σnd3⁄Σnd2 dsl= Σnd3⁄Σnd2
  1. B
  2. C
  3. D
  4. A
Correct Answer: (2) C
View Solution

Question 17:

Which of the following is a peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-alpha (PPAR-α) agonist:

  1. Ezetimibe
  2. Niacin
  3. Colesevelam
  4. Gemfibrozil
Correct Answer: (4) Gemfibrozil
View Solution

Question 18:

The given equation represents which law:

E = Kk ln d1⁄d2

  1. Rittinger's law
  2. Bond's law
  3. Fick's law
  4. Kick's law
Correct Answer: (4) Kick's law
View Solution

Question 19:

In which limit test is Thioglycolic acid used:

  1. Limit test for arsenic
  2. Limit test for sulphate
  3. Limit test for iron
  4. Limit test for chloride
Correct Answer: (3) Limit test for iron
View Solution

Question 20:

Who has the power to fix the ceiling price of scheduled formulations:

  1. Director General Health Services
  2. Pharmacy Council of India
  3. National Medical Commission
  4. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
Correct Answer: (4) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
View Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following is not a GABA derivative:

  1. Pregabalin
  2. Vigabatrin
  3. Gabapentin
  4. Rufinamide
Correct Answer: (4) Rufinamide
View Solution

Question 22:

A hypothesis stipulating that there is no difference between the situations, groups, and outcomes is called:

  1. Hypothesis of association
  2. Null hypothesis
  3. Hypothesis of differences
  4. Alternative hypothesis
Correct Answer: (2) Null hypothesis
View Solution

Question 23:

How many Pharmacists are required for a hospital having up to 300 beds:

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 5
Correct Answer: (2) 10
View Solution

Question 24:

Which of the following is easily nitrated using a mixture of HNO3 and H2SO4:

  1. Toluene
  2. Fluorobenzene
  3. Chlorobenzene
  4. Nitrobenzene
Correct Answer: (1) Toluene
View Solution

Question 25:

If the spin of the electrons in the excited state are parallel, it is called as:

  1. Doublet state
  2. Triplet state
  3. Singlet state
  4. Parallel state
Correct Answer: (2) Triplet state
View Solution

SECTION E

Question 1:

The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle is:

  1. Inspiratory reserve volume
  2. Expiratory reserve volume
  3. Tidal volume
  4. Residual volume
Correct Answer: (3) Tidal volume
View Solution

Question 2:

Virus-mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another cell is known as:

  1. Transduction
  2. Integration
  3. Transformation
  4. Transcription
Correct Answer: (1) Transduction
View Solution

Question 3:

What should be the log P value for an ideal drug candidate for transdermal permeation:

  1. Below 1
  2. 1-3
  3. 5-7
  4. Above 7
Correct Answer: (2) 1-3
View Solution

Question 4:

Which of the following formula for calculating child dose is based on body weight:

  1. Clark's formula
  2. Fried's formula
  3. Young's formula
  4. Dilling's formula
Correct Answer: (1) Clark's formula
View Solution

Question 5:

Salivary amylase helps in digestion of which of the following nutrients:

  1. Fats
  2. Vitamins
  3. Starch
  4. Proteins
Correct Answer: (3) Starch
View Solution

Question 6:

In the drying process, which of the following parameters is the same as the adiabatic saturation temperature:

  1. Absolute humidity
  2. Dew point
  3. Relative humidity
  4. Wet bulb temperature
Correct Answer: (4) Wet bulb temperature
View Solution

Question 7:

What is the proposed mechanism of action of artemisinin in the treatment of malaria:

  1. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with folate synthesis
  2. Blocking of the Plasmodium falciparum ATPase, disrupting ion homeostasis
  3. Generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) by cleavage of the endoperoxide bridge, leading to parasite death
  4. Inhibition of the heme polymerase enzyme, causing accumulation of toxic heme
Correct Answer: (3) Generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) by cleavage of the endoperoxide bridge, leading to parasite death
View Solution

Question 8:

The optimum temperature for rapid growth of mesophiles is:

  1. 40°C to 50°C
  2. 50°C to 60°C
  3. 15°C to 20°C
  4. 25°C to 40°C
Correct Answer: (4) 25°C to 40°C
View Solution

Question 9:

The fluoroquinolones act by:

  1. Inhibiting folic acid synthesis, reducing nucleotide production and DNA synthesis
  2. Inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, causing supercoiling and fragmentation of bacterial DNA
  3. Disrupting peptidoglycan cross-linking, weakening the bacterial cell wall
  4. Inhibiting ribosomal subunits, leading to the cessation of protein synthesis
Correct Answer: (2) Inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, causing supercoiling and fragmentation of bacterial DNA
View Solution

Question 10:

The cranial nerve that regulates the heartbeat is:

  1. IX
  2. VII
  3. X
  4. VIII
Correct Answer: (3) X
View Solution

Question 11:

Which of the following is a causative organism for Syphilis:

  1. Vibrio cholerae
  2. Treponema pallidum
  3. Bacillus pertussis
  4. Clostridium tetani
Correct Answer: (2) Treponema pallidum
View Solution

Question 12:

Coomb's test is used for detection of:

  1. Yellow fever
  2. Syphilis
  3. Typhoid
  4. Antiglobulin
Correct Answer: (4) Antiglobulin
View Solution

Question 13:

In Michaelis-Menten equation when Km = C:

  1. The rate of process is equal to half of maximum rate
  2. Indicates zero-order process
  3. The rate process occurs at a constant rate
  4. Equation becomes identical to first-order elimination of drug
Correct Answer: (1) The rate of process is equal to half of maximum rate
View Solution

Question 14:

Which of the following is NOT a Class 1C anti-arrhythmic drug

  1. Propafenone
  2. Mexiletine
  3. Flecainide
  4. Moricizine
Correct Answer: (2) Mexiletine
View Solution

Question 15:

Which of the following is an example of physical incompatibility:

  1. Alkaloidal incompatibility
  2. Liquefaction
  3. Drug interaction
  4. Error in dosage form
Correct Answer: (2) Liquefaction
View Solution

Question 16:

Which of the following is a Partial Fatty acid oxidation (pFox) inhibitor:

  1. Trimetazidine
  2. Atosiban
  3. Verapamil
  4. Nicardipine
Correct Answer: (1) Trimetazidine
View Solution

Question 17:

Renin is released from:

  1. Hepatocytes of liver
  2. Beta-cells of pancreas
  3. Microglial cells
  4. Juxtaglomerular cells (JGCs) of kidney
Correct Answer: (4) Juxtaglomerular cells (JGCs) of kidney
View Solution

Question 18:

Which of the following cranial nerve is instrumental in motor function:

  1. Vestibulocochlear
  2. Olfactory
  3. Accessory
  4. Optic
Correct Answer: (3) Accessory
View Solution

Question 19:

The most common neoplasm in patients with AIDS is:

  1. Carcinoma of breast
  2. Acute myeloid leukaemia
  3. Adenocarcinoma
  4. Kaposi sarcoma
Correct Answer: (4) Kaposi sarcoma
View Solution

Question 20:

The Phase in which two identical copies of DNA are formed is:

  1. M phase
  2. G2 phase
  3. G1 phase
  4. S phase
Correct Answer: (4) S phase
View Solution

Question 21:

Progressive loss of bone that occurs in osteoporosis is an example of:

  1. Atrophy
  2. Hyperplasia
  3. Hypertrophy
  4. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: (1) Atrophy
View Solution

Question 22:

The visible coloured ring of the eye is called:

  1. Lens
  2. Retina
  3. Cornea
  4. Iris
Correct Answer: (4) Iris
View Solution

Question 23:

Sarcoma is the cancer of:

  1. Plasma cells
  2. Glands
  3. Connective tissues
  4. Epithelium
Correct Answer: (3) Connective tissues
View Solution

Question 24:

Outer covering of the testes is:

  1. Tunica albuginea
  2. Tunica vaginalis
  3. Tunica media
  4. Tunica vasculosa
Correct Answer: (2) Tunica vaginalis
View Solution

Question 25:

Which of the following is the best technique for detecting HIV:

  1. Widal test
  2. Real-time PCR
  3. Polymerase chain reaction
  4. Reverse transcriptase-PCR
Correct Answer: (4) Reverse transcriptase-PCR
View Solution
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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