JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

Shivam Yadav

Apr 6, 2025

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF is available here. NTA conducted JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 exam from 9 AM to 12 PM. The question paper for JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The official JEE Main 2024 question paper pdf for the 8 April Shift 1 exam is available for download using the link below.

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JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The value of k ∈ N for which the integral I_n = ∫₀¹ (1 - x^k)^n dx, n ∈ N, satisfies 147I₍₂₀₎ = 148I₍₂₁₎, is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (4) 7
View Solution

Question 2:

The sum of all solutions of the equation 8^(2x) - 16 · 8^x + 48 = 0 is:

  • (1) 1 + log₆(8)
  • (2) log₈(6)
  • (3) 1 + log₈(6)
  • (4) log₈(4)
Correct Answer: (3) 1 + log₈(6)
View Solution

Question 3:

Let the circles C₁: (x - a)² + (y - 3)² = r² and C₂: (x - 8)² + (y - 1)² = (r/2)² touch each other externally at the point (6,6). If the point (6,6) divides the line segment joining the centers of the circles C₁ and C₂ internally in the ratio 2:1, then:

(a + b) + 4.(r + r³) equals:

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 130
  • (3) 125
  • (4) 145
Correct Answer: (2) 130
View Solution

Question 4:

The distance of point P from the x-axis, given the conditions:

OP = γ; the angle between OQ and the positive x-axis is θ; and the angle between OP and the positive z-axis is ϕ.

  • (1) γ√(1 - sin²(ϕ) cos²(θ))
  • (2) γ√(1 + cos²(θ) sin²(ϕ))
  • (3) γ√(1 - sin²(θ) cos²(ϕ))
  • (4) γ√(1 + cos²(ϕ) sin²(θ))
Correct Answer: (1) γ√(1 - sin²(ϕ) cos²(θ))
View Solution

Question 5:

The number of critical points of f(x) = (x - 2)^(2/3) (2x + 1) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Question 6:

The differential equation, whose general solution is y = c₁f(x) + c₂, where c₁ and c₂ are arbitrary constants, is:

  • (1) (8e^x - 1) d²y/dx² + dy/dx = 0
  • (2) (8e^x + 1) d²y/dx² - dy/dx = 0
  • (3) (8e^x + 1) d²y/dx² + dy/dx = 0
  • (4) (8e^x - 1) d²y/dx² - dy/dx = 0
Correct Answer: (3) (8e^x + 1) d²y/dx² + dy/dx = 0
View Solution

Question 7:

The number of points of local maxima of f(x) = 4 cos³(x) + 3√3 cos²(x) - 10 in the interval (0, 2π) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution
Question 8:

If the variance of the frequency distribution is 160, then the value of c ∈ N is:

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (3) 7
View Solution

Question 9:

Let the range of the function f(x) = 1 / (2 + sin(3x) + cos(3x)), where x ∈ R and x ∈ [a, b]. If α and β are respectively the A.M. and G.M. of a and b, then α/β is equal to:

  • (1) √2
  • (2) 2
  • (3) √π
  • (4) π
Correct Answer: (1) √2
View Solution

Question 10:

Between the following two statements:

Statement-I: Let a = i + 2j − 3k and b = 2i + j − k. Then the vector r satisfying a × r = a × b and a · r = 0 is of magnitude √10.

Statement-II: In a triangle ABC, cos(2A) + cos(2B) + cos(2C) ≥ −3/2.

  • (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
View Solution

Question 11:

Evaluate the following limit:

lim x → π/2 ∫(π/2)^3 x^3 (sin(2t^(1/3)) + cos(t^(1/3))) dt / (x − π/2)^2

  • (1) 9π²/8
  • (2) 11π²/10
  • (3) 3π²/2
  • (4) 5π²/9
Correct Answer: (1) 9π²/8
View Solution

Question 12:

The sum of the coefficients of x^(2/3) and x^(-2/5) in the binomial expansion of (x^(2/3) + 1/(2x^(2/5)))^9 is:

  • (1) 21/4
  • (2) 69/16
  • (3) 63/16
  • (4) 19/4
Correct Answer: (1) 21/4
View Solution

Question 13:

Let B = [1 3; 1 5] and A be a 2 × 2 matrix such that AB⁻¹ = A⁻¹. If BCB⁻¹ = A and C⁴ + αC² + βI = O, then 2β − α is equal to:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (4) 10
View Solution

Question 14:

If log(e) y = 3 sin^(-1) x, then (1 − x)^2 y′′ − x y′ at x = 1/2 is equal to:

  • (1) 9e^(π/6)
  • (2) 3e^(π/6)
  • (3) 3e^(π/2)
  • (4) 9e^(π/2)
Correct Answer: (4) 9e^(π/2)
View Solution

Question 15:

The integral ∫(3/4 to 1/4) cos(2 cot^(-1)(√(1 − x) / (1 + x))) dx is equal to:

  • (1) −1/2
  • (2) 1/4
  • (3) 1/2
  • (4) −1/4
Correct Answer: (4) −1/4
View Solution

Question 16:

Let a, ar, ar², ... be an infinite G.P. If ∑(n=0 to ∞) ar^n = 57 and ∑(n=0 to ∞) a³r^(3n) = 9747, then a + 18r is equal to:

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 38
  • (4) 31
Correct Answer: (4) 31
View Solution

Question 17:

If an unbiased dice is rolled thrice, then the probability of getting a greater number in the i-th roll than the number obtained in the (i−1)-th roll, i = 2, 3, is equal to:

  • (1) 3/54
  • (2) 2/54
  • (3) 5/54
  • (4) 1/54
Correct Answer: (3) 5/54
View Solution

Question 18:

The value of the integral ∫(2 to −1) log(e)(x + √(x² + 1)) dx is:

  • (1) √5 − √2 + log(e)(9 + 4√5)/(1 + √2)
  • (2) √2 − √5 + log(e)(9 + 4√5)/(1 + √2)
  • (3) √5 − √2 + log(e)(7 + 4√5)/(1 + √2)
  • (4) √2 − √5 + log(e)(7 + 4√5)/(1 + √2)
Correct Answer: (2) √2 − √5 + log(e)(9 + 4√5)/(1 + √2)
View Solution

Question 19:

Let α, β; α > β, be the roots of the equation x² − √2x − √3 = 0. Let Pn = αⁿ − βⁿ, n ∈ N. Then (11√3 − 10√2)P₁₀ + (11√2 + 10)P₁₁ − 11P₁₂ is equal to:

  • (1) 10√2P₉
  • (2) 10√3P₉
  • (3) 11√2P₉
  • (4) 11√3P₉
Correct Answer: (2) 10√3P₉
View Solution

Question 20:

Let a = 2î + αĵ + k̂, b = −î + k̂, c = βĵ − k̂, where α and β are integers and αβ = −6. Let the values of the ordered pair (α, β) for which the area of the parallelogram of diagonals a + b and b + c is √21/2, be (α₁, β₁) and (α₂, β₂). Then α₁ + β₁ − α₂β₂ is equal to:

  • (1) 17
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 19
Correct Answer: (4) 19
View Solution

Question 21:

Consider the circle C: x² + y² = 4 and the parabola P: y² = 8x. If the set of all values of α, for which three chords of the circle C on three distinct lines passing through the point (α, 0) are bisected by the parabola P, is the interval (p, q), then (2q − p)² is equal to:

  • (1) 80
Correct Answer: (1) 80
View Solution

Question 22:

Let the set of all values of p, for which f(x) = (p² − 6p + 8)(sin²(2x) − cos²(2x)) + 2(2 − p)x + 7 does not have any critical point, be the interval (a, b). Then 16ab is equal to:

  • (1) 252
Correct Answer: (1) 252
View Solution

Question 23:

For a differentiable function f : R → R, suppose f ′(x) = 3f(x) + α, where α ∈ R, f(0) = 1 and lim x→∞ f(x) = 7. Then, 9f(− log(3)) is equal to:

  • (1) 61
Correct Answer: (1) 61
View Solution

Question 24:

The number of integers between 100 and 1000 having the sum of their digits equal to 14 is:

  • (1) 70
Correct Answer: (1) 70
View Solution

Question 25:

Let A = {(x, y) : 2x + 3y = 23, x, y ∈ N} and B = {x : (x, y) ∈ A}. Then the number of one-one functions from A to B is equal to:

  • (1) 24
Correct Answer: (1) 24
View Solution

Question 26:

Let A, B, and C be three points on the parabola y² = 6x, and let the line segment AB meet the line L through C, parallel to the x-axis, at the point D. Let M and N respectively be the feet of the perpendiculars from A and B on L. Then (AM · BN / CD)² is equal to:

  • (1) 36
Correct Answer: (1) 36
View Solution

Question 27:

The square of the distance of the image of the point (6, 1, 5) in the line x−1/3 = y/2 = z−2/4, from the origin is:

  • (1) 62
  • (2) 58
  • (3) 65
  • (4) 60
Correct Answer: (1) 62
View Solution

Question 28:

If (1/alpha + 1 + 1/(alpha+2) + ... + 1/(alpha+1012)) − (1/2·1 + 1/(4·3) + 1/(6·5) + ... + 1/(2024·2023)) = 1/2024, then alpha is equal to:

  • (1) 1011
  • (2) 1009
  • (3) 1010
  • (4) 1012
Correct Answer: (1) 1011
View Solution

Question 29:

Let the inverse trigonometric functions take principal values. The number of real solutions of the equation 2sin⁻¹(x) + 3cos⁻¹(x) = 2π/5 is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) Infinite
Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution

Question 30:

Consider the matrices A = [2, −5; 3, m], B = [20, m], and X = [x, y]. Let the set of all m, for which the system of equations AX = B has a negative solution (i.e., x < 0 and y < 0), be the interval (a, b). Then 8∫b a |A| dm is equal to:

  • (1) 450
  • (2) 400
  • (3) 500
  • (4) 350
Correct Answer: (1) 450
View Solution

Question 31:

A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two smaller nuclei with their masses in the ratio 2:1. After disintegration, they will move:

  • (1) In opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 1:2 respectively
  • (2) In opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 2:1 respectively
  • (3) In the same direction with the same speed
  • (4) In opposite directions with the same speed
Correct Answer: (1) In opposite directions with speed in the ratio of 1:2 respectively
View Solution

Question 32:

The following figure represents two biconvex lenses L1 and L2 having focal lengths 10 cm and 15 cm, respectively. The distance between L1 and L2 is:

  • (1) 10 cm
  • (2) 15 cm
  • (3) 25 cm
  • (4) 35 cm
Correct Answer: (3) 25 cm
View Solution

Question 33:

The temperature of a gas is −78°C, and the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules is K. The temperature at which the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of the same gas becomes 2K is:

  • (1) −39°C
  • (2) 117°C
  • (3) 127°C
  • (4) −78°C
Correct Answer: (2) 117°C
View Solution

Question 34:

A hydrogen atom in ground state is given an energy of 10.2 eV. How many spectral lines will be emitted due to the transition of electrons?

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (4) 1
View Solution

Question 35:

The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is:

By = (3.5 × 10-7) sin(1.5 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011 t) T. The corresponding electric field will be:

  • (1) Ey = 1.17 sin(1.5 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011 t) V/m
  • (2) Ez = 105 sin(1.5 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011 t) V/m
  • (3) Ez = 1.17 sin(1.5 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011 t) V/m
  • (4) Ey = 10.5 sin(1.5 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011 t) V/m
Correct Answer: (2) Ez = 105 sin(1.5 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011 t) V/m
View Solution

Question 36:

A square loop of side 15 cm is being moved towards right at a constant speed of 2 cm/s. The front edge enters the 50 cm wide magnetic field at t = 0. The value of induced emf in the loop at t = 10 s will be:

  • (1) 0.3 mV
  • (2) 4.5 mV
  • (3) zero
  • (4) 3 mV
Correct Answer: (3) zero
View Solution

Question 37:

Two cars are travelling towards each other at a speed of 20 m/s each. When the cars are 300 m apart, both drivers apply brakes, and the cars retard at the rate of 2 m/s². The distance between them when they come to rest is:

  • (1) 200 m
  • (2) 50 m
  • (3) 100 m
  • (4) 25 m
Correct Answer: (3) 100 m
View Solution

Question 38:

The I-V characteristics of an electronic device shown in the figure. The device is:

  • (1) Solar cell
  • (2) Transistor which can be used as an amplifier
  • (3) Zener diode which can be used as a voltage regulator
  • (4) Diode which can be used as a rectifier
Correct Answer: (3) Zener diode which can be used as a voltage regulator
View Solution

Question 39:

The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is three times the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble. The ratio between the volume of the first and the second bubble is:

  • (1) 1:9
  • (2) 1:3
  • (3) 1:81
  • (4) 1:27
Correct Answer: (4) 1:27
View Solution

Question 40:

The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass m and energy E is:

λ = h / √(2mE). The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is:

  • (1) [ML−1T−2]
  • (2) [ML2T−1]
  • (3) [MLT−2]
  • (4) [ML2T−2]
Correct Answer: (2) [ML2T−1]
View Solution

Question 41:

A satellite of 103 kg mass is revolving in a circular orbit of radius 2R. If 104R6 joules of energy is supplied to the satellite, it would revolve in a new circular orbit of radius:

  • (1) 2.5R
  • (2) 3R
  • (3) 4R
  • (4) 6R
Correct Answer: (4) 6R
View Solution

Question 42:

The effective resistance between A and B, if the resistance of each resistor is R, will be:

  • (1) 2/3R
  • (2) 8/3R
  • (3) 5/3R
  • (4) 4/3R
Correct Answer: (2) 8/3R
View Solution

Question 43:

Five charges +q, +5q, −2q, +3q, −4q are situated as shown in the figure. The electric flux due to this configuration through the surface S is:

  • (1) 5q/ϵ₀
  • (2) 4q/ϵ₀
  • (3) 3q/ϵ₀
  • (4) q/ϵ₀
Correct Answer: (2) 4q/ϵ₀
View Solution

Question 44:

A proton and a deuteron (q = +e, m = 2.0u) having the same kinetic energies enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving perpendicular to B. The ratio of the radius rd of the deuteron path to the radius rp of the proton path is:

  • (1) 1:1
  • (2) 1:√2
  • (3) √2:1
  • (4) 1:2
Correct Answer: (3) √2:1
View Solution

Question 45:

UV light of 4.13 eV is incident on a photosensitive metal surface having a work function of 3.13 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be:

  • (1) 4.13 eV
  • (2) 1 eV
  • (3) 3.13 eV
  • (4) 7.26 eV
Correct Answer: (2) 1 eV
View Solution

Question 46:

The energy released in the fusion of 2 kg of hydrogen deep in the sun is EH and the energy released in the fission of 2 kg of 235U is EU. The ratio EH/EU is approximately:

  • (1) 9.13
  • (2) 15.04
  • (3) 7.62
  • (4) 25.6
Correct Answer: (3) 7.62
View Solution

Question 47:

A real gas within a closed chamber at 27°C undergoes the cyclic process as shown in the figure. The gas obeys the PV³ = RT equation for the path A to B. The net work done in the complete cycle is (assuming R = 8 J/mol·K):

  • (1) 225 J
  • (2) 205 J
  • (3) 20 J
  • (4) −20 J
Correct Answer: (2) 205 J
View Solution

Question 48:

A 1 kg mass is suspended from the ceiling by a rope of length 4 m. A horizontal force F is applied at the midpoint of the rope so that the rope makes an angle of 45° with respect to the vertical axis as shown in the figure. The magnitude of F is:

  • (1) 10√2 N
  • (2) 1 N
  • (3) 1/10√2 N
  • (4) 10 N
Correct Answer: (4) 10 N
View Solution

Question 49:

A spherical balloon of radius 1 m is inflated with air at constant temperature. The work done to increase the volume of the balloon by 1 m³ is:

  • (1) 1 J
  • (2) 2 J
  • (3) 4 J
  • (4) 3 J
Correct Answer: (3) 4 J
View Solution

Using the work formula for isothermal expansion, the work done is calculated as 4 J.


Question 50:

In the truth table of the above circuit, the value of X and Y are:

  • (1) 1, 1
  • (2) 1, 0
  • (3) 0, 1
  • (4) 0, 0
Correct Answer: (3) 0, 1
View Solution

Question 51:

A straight magnetic strip has a magnetic moment of 44 Am². If the strip is bent in a semicircular shape, its magnetic moment will be:

  • (1) 22 Am²
  • (2) 33 Am²
  • (3) 28 Am²
  • (4) 44 Am²
Correct Answer: (3) 28 Am²
View Solution

Question 52:

A particle of mass 0.5 kg executes simple harmonic motion under a force F = -50x (Nm⁻¹). The time period of oscillation is x/35 seconds. Find the value of x.

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 28
Correct Answer: (2) 22
View Solution

Question 53:

A capacitor of reactance 4√3 Ω and a resistor of resistance 4 Ω are connected in series with an AC source of peak value 8√2 V. The power dissipation in the circuit is:

  • (1) 2 W
  • (2) 3 W
  • (3) 5 W
  • (4) 4 W
Correct Answer: (4) 4 W
View Solution

Question 54:

An electric field E = 2x î N/C exists in space. A cube of side 2 m is placed in the space. The electric flux through the cube is:

  • (1) 8 Nm²/C
  • (2) 12 Nm²/C
  • (3) 16 Nm²/C
  • (4) 20 Nm²/C
Correct Answer: (3) 16 Nm²/C
View Solution

Question 55:

A circular disc reaches from top to bottom of an inclined plane of length l. When it slips down, it takes t seconds. When it rolls down, it takes (α/2)^1/2 × t seconds. Find α.

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution

Question 56:

To determine the resistance (R) of a wire, a circuit is designed. The value of R is:

  • (1) 1500 Ω
  • (2) 2000 Ω
  • (3) 2500 Ω
  • (4) 3000 Ω
Correct Answer: (3) 2500 Ω
View Solution

Question 57:

The resultant of two vectors A and B is perpendicular to A and its magnitude is half that of B. The angle between A and B is:

  • (1) 90°
  • (2) 120°
  • (3) 150°
  • (4) 180°
Correct Answer: (3) 150°
View Solution

Question 58:

Monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used in Young's double-slit experiment. When one slit is covered with a glass plate (refractive index μ = 1.5), the central maximum shifts by 4 fringes. Find the thickness of the glass plate.

  • (1) 2 µm
  • (2) 3 µm
  • (3) 4 µm
  • (4) 5 µm
Correct Answer: (3) 4 µm
View Solution

Question 59:

A force (3x² + 2x - 5) N displaces a body from x = 2 m to x = 4 m. The work done by this force is:

  • (1) 50 J
  • (2) 58 J
  • (3) 62 J
  • (4) 70 J
Correct Answer: (2) 58 J
View Solution

Question 60:

At room temperature (27°C), the resistance of a heating element is 50 Ω. If the temperature coefficient of the material is 2.4 × 10⁻⁴ °C⁻¹, find the temperature of the element when its resistance is 62 Ω:

  • (1) 927°C
  • (2) 1027°C
  • (3) 1127°C
  • (4) 1227°C
Correct Answer: (2) 1027°C
View Solution

Question 61:

The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency A×10¹² hertz and that has a radiant intensity in that direction of 1/B watt per steradian. ’A’ and ’B’ are respectively:

  • (1) 540 and 1
  • (2) 540 and 683
  • (3) 450 and 1
  • (4) 450 and 683
Correct Answer: (2) 540 and 683
View Solution

Question 62:

The correct stability order of the following resonance structures of CH₃CH=CHCHO is:

  • (1) II > III > I
  • (2) III > II > I
  • (3) I > II > III
  • (4) II > I > III
Correct Answer: (2) III > II > I
View Solution

Question 63:

The total number of stereoisomers possible for the given structure is:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (1) 8
View Solution

Question 64:

The correct increasing order for bond angles among BF3, PF3, and CF3 is:

  • (1) PF3 < BF3 < CF3
  • (2) BF3 < PF3 < CF3
  • (3) CF3 < PF3 < BF3
  • (4) BF3 = PF3 < CF3
Correct Answer: (3) CF3 < PF3 < BF3
View Solution

Question 65:

Match List-I (Test) with List-II (Observation):

List-I (Test) | List-II (Observation)

A. Br2 water test | I. Yellow-orange or orange-red precipitate formed

B. Ceric ammonium nitrate test | II. Reddish orange color disappears

C. Ferric chloride test | III. Red color appears

D. 2,4-DNP test | IV. Blue, green, violet, or red color appears

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Question 66:

Match List-I (Cell) with List-II (Use/Property/Reaction):

List-I (Cell) | List-II (Use/Property/Reaction)

A. Leclanche cell | I. Converts energy of combustion into electrical energy

B. Ni-Cd cell | II. Does not involve any ion in solution and is used in hearing aids

C. Fuel cell | III. Rechargeable

D. Mercury cell | IV. Reaction at anode: Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Correct Answer: (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Question 67:

Match List-I (Complex) with List-II (Hybridization):

List-I (Complex) | List-II (Hybridization)

A. K2[Ni(CN)4] | I. sp3

B. [Ni(CO)4] | II. sp3d2

C. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 | III. dsp2

D. Na3[CoF6] | IV. d2sp3

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

Question 68:

The coordination environment of Ca2+ ion in its complex with EDTA4- is:

  • (1) Tetrahedral
  • (2) Octahedral
  • (3) Square planar
  • (4) Trigonal prismatic
Correct Answer: (2) Octahedral
View Solution

Question 69:

The incorrect statement about glucose is:

  • (1) Glucose is soluble in water because of having an aldehyde functional group
  • (2) Glucose remains in multiple isomeric forms in its aqueous solution
  • (3) Glucose is an aldohexose
  • (4) Glucose is one of the monomer units in sucrose
Correct Answer: (1) Glucose is soluble in water due to its hydroxyl groups, not because of the aldehyde group.
View Solution

Question 70:

The number of oxygen atoms present in the chemical formula of fuming sulfuric acid is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (1) 7
View Solution

Question 71:

Which of the following compounds can give a positive iodoform test when treated with aqueous KOH solution followed by potassium hypoiodite?

  • (1) Option 1
  • (2) Option 2
  • (3) Option 3
  • (4) Option 4
Correct Answer: (2) A, B, and C only
View Solution

Question 72:

For a sparingly soluble salt AB2, the equilibrium concentrations of A2+ ions and B- ions are 1.2 × 10^-4 M and 0.24 × 10^-3 M, respectively. The solubility product of AB2 is:

  • (1) 0.069 × 10^-12
  • (2) 6.91 × 10^-12
  • (3) 0.276 × 10^-12
  • (4) 27.65 × 10^-12
Correct Answer: (2) 6.91 × 10^-12
View Solution

Question 73:

Major product of the following reaction is:

  • (1) (A)
  • (2) (B)
  • (3) (C)
  • (4) (D)
Correct Answer: (2) (B)
View Solution

Question 74:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The higher oxidation states are more stable down the group among transition elements unlike p-block elements.

Statement II: Copper cannot liberate hydrogen from weak acids.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 75:

The incorrect statement regarding ethyne is:

  • (1) The C-C bond in ethyne is shorter than that in ethene
  • (2) Both carbons are sp hybridized
  • (3) Ethyne is linear
  • (4) The C-C bond in ethyne is weaker than that in ethene
Correct Answer: (4) The C-C bond in ethyne is weaker than that in ethene
View Solution

Question 76:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Element) | List-II (Electronic Configuration)

A. N | I. [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p5

B. S | II. [Ne] 3s2 3p4

C. Br | III. [He] 2s2 2p3

D. Kr | IV. [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p6

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
View Solution

Question 77:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I | List-II

A. Melting point (K) | I. Tl > In > Ga > Al > B

B. Ionic Radius (M+3/pm) | II. B > Tl > Al ≈ Ga > In

C. ∆iH₁ (kJ mol⁻¹) | III. Tl > In > Al > Ga > B

D. Atomic Radius (pm) | IV. B > Al > Tl > In > Ga

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
View Solution

Question 78:

Which of the following compounds will give a silver mirror with ammoniacal silver nitrate?

  • (1) Formic Acid
  • (2) Formaldehyde
  • (3) Benzaldehyde
  • (4) Acetone
Correct Answer: (3) Benzaldehyde
View Solution

Question 79:

Which of the following is a correct equation to show change in molar conductivity with respect to concentration for a weak electrolyte, if the symbols carry their usual meaning?

  • (1) Λm²C − KaΛ◦m² + KaΛmΛ◦m = 0
  • (2) Λm − Λ◦m + AC¹/² = 0
  • (3) Λm − Λ◦m − AC¹/² = 0
  • (4) Λm²C + KaΛ◦m − KaΛmΛ◦m = 0
Correct Answer: (1) Λm²C − KaΛ◦m² + KaΛmΛ◦m = 0
View Solution

Question 80:

The electronic configuration of Einsteinium is: (Given atomic number of Einsteinium = 99)

  • (1) [Rn] 5f¹² 6d⁰ 7s²
  • (2) [Rn] 5f¹¹ 6d⁰ 7s²
  • (3) [Rn] 5f¹³ 6d⁰ 7s²
  • (4) [Rn] 5f¹⁰ 6d⁰ 7s²
Correct Answer: (2) [Rn] 5f¹¹ 6d⁰ 7s²
View Solution

Question 81:

The number of oxygen atoms present in the chemical formula of fuming sulfuric acid is:

Correct Answer: 7
View Solution

Question 82:

A transition metal 'M' among Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, and Fe has the highest second ionisation enthalpy. The spin-only magnetic moment value of M⁺ ion is (Nearest integer):

Correct Answer: 6
View Solution

Question 83:

The vapor pressure of pure benzene and methyl benzene at 27°C is given as 80 Torr and 24 Torr, respectively. The mole fraction of methyl benzene in the vapor phase, in equilibrium with an equimolar mixture of those two liquids (ideal solution) at the same temperature is ........ ×10⁻² (nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 23
View Solution

Question 84:

Consider the following test for a group-IV cation:

M²⁺ + H₂S → A (Black precipitate) + byproduct

A + aqua regia → B + NOCl + S + H₂O

B + KNO₂ + CH₃COOH → C + byproduct

The spin-only magnetic moment value of the metal complex C is ........ BM (Nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 0
View Solution

Question 85:

Consider the following first-order gas-phase reaction at constant temperature:

A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g)

If the total pressure of the gases is found to be 200 Torr after 23 sec, and 300 Torr upon the complete decomposition of A after a very long time, then the rate constant of the given reaction is ............. × 10⁻² s⁻¹ (nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 86:

In the given TLC, the distance of spot A and B are 5 cm and 7 cm, from the bottom of the TLC plate, respectively. The Rf value of B is x × 10⁻¹ times more than A. The value of x is:

Correct Answer: 15
View Solution

Question 87:

Based on Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the uncertainty in the velocity of the electron to be found within an atomic nucleus of diameter 10⁻¹⁵ m is ........ × 10⁹ ms⁻¹ (nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 58
View Solution

Question 88:

Number of compounds from the following which cannot undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions is:

Toluene, nitrobenzene, xylene, cumene, aniline, chlorobenzene, m-nitroaniline, m-dinitrobenzene.

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Question 89:

Total number of electrons present in (π*) molecular orbitals of O₂, O₂⁺, and O₂⁻ is:

Correct Answer: 6
View Solution

Question 90:

When ∆Hvap = 30 kJ/mol and ∆Svap = 75 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹, then the temperature of vapor, at one atmosphere, is:

Correct Answer: 400 K
View Solution




JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 (April)

Check JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 2 for other shifts.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
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JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Vedantu Download PDF
Reliable Institute To be updated
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JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 8 April Shift 1 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

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JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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