WBJEE 2024 Chemistry Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution pdf with Answer Key

Ratnam Agarwal

Jan 10, 2025

WBJEE 2024 Chemistry Question Paper PDF is available for download here. WBJEEB conducted WBJEE 2024 Paper 2 for Chemistry from 2 PM to 4 PM. WBJEE 2024 Chemistry Question Paper consists of 40 MCQs carrying a total weightage of 50 marks. There are 30 MCQs for 1 mark each & a negative marking of ¼, 5 questions for 2 marks each & a negative marking of ½ and 5 questions for 2 marks each & no negative marking. Candidates can use the link below to download WBJEE 2024 question paper with answer key PDF for Chemistry.

WBJEE 2024 Chemistry Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

WBJEE 2024 Chemistry Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

WBJEE 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

In the following sequence of reactions, compound 'M' is:

M → CH3MgBr → N + CH4 ↑ → H⁺ CH3COCH2COCH3

Options:

Correct Answer: 1. CH3COCH2COCH3
View Solution

The given reaction sequence involves the following steps:

  1. Reaction with Grignard reagent: Compound M reacts with CH3MgBr (a Grignard reagent) to form an intermediate compound N. In this step, the Grignard reagent adds to the carbonyl group of M, creating a new C–C bond and releasing CH4 gas as a by-product. The reaction mechanism involves nucleophilic attack by CH3 on the carbonyl carbon.
  2. Hydrolysis: The intermediate N undergoes acid hydrolysis. During this process, the intermediate is converted into CH3COCH2COCH3, which is a β-diketone. Hydrolysis ensures the protonation and stabilization of the newly formed compound.

Key Structural Feature:
CH3COCH2COCH3 has a β-diketone structure, where two keto groups are separated by a CH2 group. This confirms that compound M must also be a β-diketone precursor.

Among the options provided, only CH3COCH2COCH3 matches the final product structure. Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.


Question 2:

Identify the ion having 4f6 electronic configuration:

Options:

  1. Gd3+
  2. Sm3+
  3. Sm2+
  4. Tb3+
Correct Answer: 3. Sm2+
View Solution

The electronic configuration of Gd (Gadolinium) is [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2. When Gd loses 3 electrons (one from the 6s orbital and two from the 5d orbital), it becomes Gd3+ with the electronic configuration [Xe] 4f7. This configuration does not match 4f6.

The electronic configuration of Sm (Samarium) is [Xe] 4f6 6s2. When Sm loses 2 electrons from the 6s orbital, it becomes Sm2+ with the configuration [Xe] 4f6. This matches the given 4f6 configuration.

The configuration of Sm3+ is [Xe] 4f5, and that of Tb3+ (Terbium) is [Xe] 4f8. Neither of these matches the required configuration.

Therefore, the ion with a 4f6 configuration is Sm2+.


Question 3:

Metallic conductors and semiconductors are heated separately. What are the changes in conductivity?

Options:

  1. Increase, Increase
  2. Decrease, Decrease
  3. Increase, Decrease
  4. Decrease, Increase
Correct Answer: 4. Decrease, Increase
View Solution

Conductivity in materials depends on the availability of free charge carriers and their mobility.

1. For metallic conductors: Conductivity decreases with an increase in temperature. This is because as temperature rises, the lattice vibrations in the metal increase, leading to more frequent collisions between electrons and the lattice ions. This reduces the mobility of electrons, thereby decreasing conductivity.

2. For semiconductors: Conductivity increases with an increase in temperature. In semiconductors, thermal energy excites more electrons from the valence band to the conduction band, increasing the number of free charge carriers (electrons and holes). This leads to higher conductivity at elevated temperatures.

Thus, the correct answer is that the conductivity of metals decreases while the conductivity of semiconductors increases when heated.

Question 4:

The equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 (Gram molecular weight = M) in the given reaction is:

I2 + 2 Na2S2O3 → 2 NaI + Na2S4O6

Options:

  1. M/2
  2. M
  3. 2M
  4. M/4
Correct Answer: 2. M
View Solution

The reaction involves:
I2 + 2 Na2S2O3 → 2 NaI + Na2S4O6

Here, each molecule of Na2S2O3 donates 1 electron, leading to a total of 2 electrons being transferred per molecule of I2.

1. Oxidation states of sulfur: In Na2S2O3, the average oxidation state of sulfur is +2. During the reaction, sulfur in Na2S2O3 is partially oxidized to Na2S4O6, where the average oxidation state becomes +2.5.

2. Definition of equivalent weight: The equivalent weight of a substance is given by:
Equivalent Weight = Molecular Weight / n
Here, n represents the number of electrons transferred per molecule in the reaction.

3. Calculation: For Na2S2O3, n = 1, because each molecule transfers 1 electron. Therefore, the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 is equal to its molecular weight, M.

Thus, the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 in this reaction is M.


Question 5:

The reactivity order of the following molecules towards SN1 reaction is:

Allyl chloride (I), Chlorobenzene (II), Ethyl chloride (III)

Options:

  1. I > II > III
  2. I > III > II
  3. II > I > III
  4. III > I > II
Correct Answer: 2. I > III > II
View Solution

The reactivity order towards an SN1 reaction is determined by the stability of the carbocation intermediate.

Allyl chloride forms an allyl carbocation, which is resonance-stabilized, making it more stable.
Ethyl chloride forms a primary carbocation, which is less stable than the allyl carbocation.
Chlorobenzene, however, does not undergo SN1 reactions readily because the carbocation would be destabilized due to the aromatic ring.

Thus, the reactivity order is I > III > II.

Question 6:

Toluene reacts with mixed acid at 25°C to produce:

Options:

  1. Nearly equal amounts of o- and m-nitrotoluene
  2. p-Nitrotoluene (only)
  3. Predominantly o-nitrotoluene and p-nitrotoluene
  4. 2, 4, 6-Trinitrotoluene (only)
Correct Answer: 3. Predominantly o-nitrotoluene and p-nitrotoluene
View Solution

At 25°C, nitration of toluene with a mixture of nitric acid and sulfuric acid (mixed acid) predominantly gives ortho- and para-nitrotoluene as the products. The para isomer is the major product due to steric and electronic factors. The methyl group on toluene is an activating group, which directs the nitro group to the ortho and para positions.


Question 7:

The product 'P' in the above reaction is:

Reaction ImageCH3CH2C(O)ONa (anhydrous) → P

Options:

  1. Ph CH = CHCH2COOH
  2. Option 3
  3. Option 4
Correct Answer: 2.
View Solution

This reaction is a Perkin condensation reaction. Benzaldehyde (PhCHO) reacts with acetic anhydride in the presence of a base (sodium ethoxide) to produce cinnamic acid Product. The reaction proceeds through the formation of an enolate ion, followed by aldol-like condensation and dehydration to yield the α,β-unsaturated carboxylic acid product.


Question 8:

The decreasing order of reactivity of the following alkenes towards HBr addition is:

CH3–CH=CH2 (I), CF3–CH=CH2 (II), MeOCH=CH2 (III), Compound IV (IV)

Options:

  1. I > II > III > IV
  2. II > IV > I > III
  3. III > IV > I > II
  4. III > I > II > IV
Correct Answer: 4. III > I > II > IV
View Solution

The reactivity of alkenes towards HBr addition depends on the stability of the carbocation intermediate formed during the reaction:

  • MeOCH=CH2 (III) forms a resonance-stabilized carbocation due to the electron-donating methoxy group, making it the most reactive.
  • CH3–CH=CH2 (I) forms a secondary carbocation, which is moderately stable.
  • CF3–CH=CH2 (II) forms a destabilized carbocation due to the electron-withdrawing CF3 group.
  • Compound IV (IV) forms a sterically hindered carbocation, making it the least reactive.
Thus, the order of reactivity is III > I > II > IV.


Question 9:

Ozonolysis of o-xylene produces:

Reaction Image

Options:

  1. I:III = 1:2
  2. II:III = 2:1
  3. I:II:III = 1:2:3
  4. I:II:III = 3:2:1
Correct Answer: 3. I:II:III = 1:2:3
View Solution

Ozonolysis of o-xylene involves the cleavage of the double bonds in the aromatic ring, leading to the formation of three carbonyl compounds:

  • Compound I: CH3–C(O)–C(O)–CH3 (produced once),
  • Compound II: CH3–C(O)–C(O)–H (produced twice),
  • Compound III: H–C(O)–C(O)–H (produced thrice).
The ratios of the products formed depend on the symmetry of the molecule and the distribution of substituents around the aromatic ring. In the case of o-xylene, the ratio of the products is I:II:III = 1:2:3.


Question 10:

The compounds A and B are respectively:

Reaction Image

Options:

  1. Option 1
  2. Option 2
  3. Option 3
  4. Option 4
Correct Answer:3. Option 3
View Solution

The reaction sequence involves the formation of a Grignard reagent from Me Br and Mg in dry ether. The Grignard reagent reacts with CO2 (from dry ice) to form a carboxylate, which upon protonation with H3O+ gives a carboxylic acid. The correct structures of A and B are shown in option (3).

Question 11:

The compound that does not give a positive test for nitrogen in Lassaigne's test is:

Options:

  1. Option 1
  2. Option 2
  3. Option 3
  4. Option 4
Correct Answer: 2. Option 2
View Solution

In Lassaigne’s test, compounds containing nitrogen form a characteristic blue or purple color with sodium fusion extract when treated with sodium picrate or other reagents. The compound that does not give a positive test for nitrogen is the one that does not contain nitrogen in its structure.

The given compounds are:

  • (A) Nitro phenol (C6H4NO2OH) contains nitrogen and will give a positive test.
  • (B) Chlorobenzene (C6H5Cl) does not contain nitrogen, and thus does not give a positive test for nitrogen in Lassaigne's test.
  • (C) Aniline (C6H5NH2) contains nitrogen and will give a positive test.
  • (D) Aminobenzene (C6H5NH2) contains nitrogen and will give a positive test.

Thus, the compound that does not give a positive test for nitrogen is (B) Chlorobenzene.


Question 12:

The correct acidity order of phenol (I), 4-hydroxybenzaldehyde (II), and 3-hydroxybenzaldehyde (III) is:

Options:

  1. I < II < III
  2. I < III < II
  3. II < I < III
  4. III < I < II
Correct Answer: 2. I < III < II
View Solution

Phenol is acidic due to the resonance stabilization of the phenoxide ion. The introduction of an electron-withdrawing group such as -CHO increases acidity by stabilizing the negative charge on the oxygen atom.

  • 4-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (II): The -CHO group at the para position exerts the maximum electron-withdrawing effect due to resonance and inductive effects, making II the most acidic.
  • 3-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (III): The -CHO group at the meta position provides a lesser electron-withdrawing effect compared to the para position, making III less acidic than II but more acidic than I.
  • Phenol (I): Without any substituents, phenol has the lowest acidity among the three compounds.

Therefore, the acidity order is I < III < II.


Question 13:

The major product of the following reaction is:

Reaction Image

Options:

  1. Option 1
  2. Option 2
  3. Option 3
  4. Option 4
Correct Answer: 3. Option 3
View Solution

The given reaction involves a nucleophilic substitution (SN2) where sodium cyanide (NaCN) is used as the nucleophile and DMF is the solvent. In this reaction, the cyanide ion (CN-) will attack the electrophilic carbon attached to the halide group (Cl or I) and replace it.

The structure of the reactant is:
C6H4ClI
When NaCN is added, the cyanide ion (CN-) will substitute for the halide group, leading to the formation of a nitrile group (CN).

The major product of this reaction will be:
C6H4CN
Thus, the major product is the compound (C) Iodobenzene with one CN group attached to the benzene ring.


Question 14:

Which of the following statements is correct for a spontaneous polymerization reaction?

Options:

  1. ΔG < 0, ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
  2. ΔG < 0, ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
  3. ΔG > 0, ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
  4. ΔG > 0, ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
Correct Answer: 1. ΔG < 0, ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
View Solution

The spontaneity of a chemical reaction, including polymerization, is determined by the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG). For a reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG must be negative:
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
where ΔH is the enthalpy change, ΔS is the entropy change, and T is the temperature in Kelvin.

In the case of spontaneous polymerization:

  • ΔH < 0: The process is exothermic, releasing energy as bonds are formed between monomers.
  • ΔS < 0: Polymerization involves the formation of a more ordered structure from monomers, leading to a decrease in entropy.
Even though ΔS is negative, the large negative ΔH ensures that ΔG remains negative, satisfying the condition for spontaneity.


Question 15:

At 25°C, the ionic product of water is 10-14. The free energy change for the self-ionization of water in kcal mol-1 is:

Options:

  1. 20.5
  2. 14.0
  3. 19.1
  4. 25.3
Correct Answer: 3. 19.1
View Solution

The relationship between Gibbs Free Energy change (ΔG°) and the equilibrium constant (K) is given by:
ΔG° = -RT ln K
Here:

  • K = 10-14 (ionic product of water),
  • R = 1.987 cal mol-1 K-1 (universal gas constant),
  • T = 298 K (temperature in Kelvin).
Substituting these values:
ΔG° = -1.987 × 298 × ln(10-14)
Since ln(10-14) = -14 ln(10) and ln(10) ≈ 2.303:
ΔG° = -1.987 × 298 × (-14 × 2.303) = 19100 cal mol-1
Converting to kcal mol-1:
ΔG° = 19.1 kcal mol-1

Thus, the free energy change is approximately 19.1 kcal mol-1.

Question 16:

Consider an electron moving in the first Bohr orbit of a He+ ion with a velocity v1. If it is allowed to move in the third Bohr orbit with a velocity v3, indicate the correct v3 : v1 ratio:

Options:

  1. 3:1
  2. 2:1
  3. 1:3
  4. 1:2
Correct Answer: 3. 1:3
View Solution

The velocity of an electron in a Bohr orbit is inversely proportional to the principal quantum number (n): \[ v \propto \frac{1}{n} \] For the first Bohr orbit (n = 1), the velocity is v1. For the third Bohr orbit (n = 3), the velocity is v3. Using the proportionality: \[ \frac{v_3}{v_1} = \frac{1/3}{1/1} = \frac{1}{3} \] Thus, the ratio v3 : v1 is 1:3.


Question 17:

The compressibility factor for a van der Waals gas at high pressure is:

Options:

  1. 1 + RT/Pb
  2. 1 + Pb/RT
  3. 1 - Pb/RT
  4. 1
Correct Answer: 2. 1 + Pb/RT
View Solution

The compressibility factor (Z) is defined as: \[ Z = \frac{PV}{RT} \] For a van der Waals gas, the equation of state is: \[ \left(P + \frac{a}{V^2}\right)(V - b) = RT \] At high pressures, the volume V decreases, making the term b (excluded volume) significant. The term involving a (intermolecular attraction) becomes negligible. Simplifying for high pressure: \[ Z \approx 1 + \frac{Pb}{RT} \] Thus, the compressibility factor is approximately 1 + Pb/RT under high-pressure conditions.


Question 18:

For a spontaneous process, the incorrect statement is:

Options:

  1. (ΔGsystem)T, P > 0
  2. (ΔSsystem) + (ΔSsurroundings) > 0
  3. (ΔGsystem)T, P < 0
  4. (ΔUsystem)S, V < 0
Correct Answer: 1. (ΔGsystem)T, P > 0
View Solution

For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure:

  • Gibbs Free Energy (ΔG) must be negative: (ΔGsystem)T, P < 0.
  • The total entropy change (system + surroundings) must be positive: (ΔSsystem) + (ΔSsurroundings) > 0.
  • Internal energy change (ΔU) can vary depending on the process but is typically negative under adiabatic conditions.
Option 1, which states (ΔGsystem)T, P > 0, is incorrect because a positive ΔG implies a non-spontaneous process.


Question 19:

Identify the incorrect statement among the following:

Options:

  1. Viscosity of liquid always decreases with increase in temperature.
  2. Surface tension of liquid always decreases with increase in temperature.
  3. Viscosity of liquid always increases in presence of impurity.
  4. Surface tension of liquid always increases in presence of impurity.
Correct Answer: 3. Viscosity of liquid always increases in presence of impurity.
View Solution

- Option 1: Correct. Viscosity decreases with an increase in temperature because the intermolecular forces are weakened, allowing liquid molecules to flow more easily.
- Option 2: Correct. Surface tension decreases with temperature due to reduced cohesive forces at the liquid surface.
- Option 3: Incorrect. Impurities increase viscosity by disrupting the liquid's intermolecular interactions, making it harder for molecules to flow.
- Option 4: Correct. The effect of impurities on surface tension depends on the type of impurity. For example, surfactants lower surface tension, while some other impurities might increase it.

Therefore, option 3 is incorrect.


Question 20:

Which of the following statements is true about the equilibrium constant and rate constant of a single-step chemical reaction?

Options:

  1. Equilibrium constant may increase or decrease, but rate constant always increases with temperature.
  2. Both equilibrium constant and rate constant increase with temperature.
  3. Rate constant may increase or decrease, but equilibrium constant always increases with temperature.
  4. Both equilibrium constant and rate constant decrease with temperature.
Correct Answer: 1. Equilibrium constant may increase or decrease, but rate constant always increases with temperature.
View Solution

The rate constant (k) is governed by the Arrhenius equation: \[ k = A e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}} \] Here, A is the frequency factor, Ea is the activation energy, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature. As T increases, the exponential term increases, and hence, k always increases.
The equilibrium constant (K) depends on the reaction's enthalpy change (ΔH): \[ \ln K = -\frac{\Delta H}{RT} + \frac{\Delta S}{R} \] For exothermic reactions (ΔH < 0), K decreases with temperature. For endothermic reactions (ΔH > 0), K increases with temperature.
Thus, the equilibrium constant can either increase or decrease depending on the reaction's nature, but the rate constant always increases with temperature.

Question 21:

After the emission of a β-particle followed by an α-particle from 21483Bi, the number of neutrons in the atom is:

Options:

  1. 210
  2. 128
  3. 129
  4. 82
Correct Answer: 2. 128
View Solution

The atomic number of 21483Bi is 83, and the mass number is 214.
1. Emission of a β-particle: A β-particle emission increases the atomic number by 1 (83 → 84) but keeps the mass number unchanged (214).
2. Emission of an α-particle: An α-particle emission decreases the atomic number by 2 (84 → 82) and the mass number by 4 (214 → 210).

The number of neutrons is calculated as: \[ \text{Number of neutrons} = \text{Mass number} - \text{Atomic number} = 210 - 82 = 128 \]


Question 22:

Which hydrogen-like species will have the same radius as the 1st Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom?

Options:

  1. n=2, Li2+
  2. n=2, Be3+
  3. n=2, He+
  4. n=3, Li2+
Correct Answer: 2. n=2, Be3+
View Solution

The radius of the nth Bohr orbit for a hydrogen-like species is given by: \[ r = \frac{n^2 a_0}{Z} \] where n is the principal quantum number, a0 is the Bohr radius for hydrogen, and Z is the atomic number. For the 1st Bohr orbit of hydrogen (n=1, Z=1), r = a0.

We need to find a species where r = a0. Let us check the options:

  • Option 1: n=2, Li2+ (Z=3): \[ r = \frac{2^2 a_0}{3} = \frac{4}{3} a_0 \]
  • Option 2: n=2, Be3+ (Z=4): \[ r = \frac{2^2 a_0}{4} = a_0 \]
  • Option 3: n=2, He+ (Z=2): \[ r = \frac{2^2 a_0}{2} = 2 a_0 \]
  • Option 4: n=3, Li2+ (Z=3): \[ r = \frac{3^2 a_0}{3} = 3 a_0 \]
Only option 2 gives the same radius as the 1st Bohr orbit of hydrogen.


Question 23:

For a first-order reaction with rate constant k, the slope of the plot of log(reactant concentration) against time is:

Options:

  1. k/2.303
  2. k
  3. -k/2.303
  4. -k
Correct Answer: 3. -k/2.303
View Solution

For a first-order reaction, the integrated rate law is: \[ \ln [A] = -kt + \ln [A]_0 \] where [A] is the concentration at time t, k is the rate constant, and [A]0 is the initial concentration. Taking the logarithm to base 10: \[ \log [A] = -\frac{k}{2.303} t + \log [A]_0 \] This equation is of the form y = mx + c, where:

  • y = log [A],
  • x = t,
  • m = -k/2.303 (slope),
  • c = log [A]0.
Thus, the slope of the plot of log(reactant concentration) against time is -k/2.303.


Question 24:

Equal volumes of aqueous solution of 0.1 M HCl and 0.2 M H2SO4 are mixed. The concentration of H+ ions in the resulting solution is:

Options:

  1. 0.15 M
  2. 0.30 M
  3. 0.10 M
  4. 0.25 M
Correct Answer: 4. 0.25 M
View Solution

- HCl is a monoprotic acid, so 0.1 M HCl provides 0.1 M H+ ions.
- H2SO4 is a diprotic acid, so 0.2 M H2SO4 provides \( 2 \times 0.2 = 0.4 \, \text{M} \, \text{H}^+ \) ions.

When equal volumes of the two solutions are mixed, the total volume doubles, and the concentration of each acid is halved: \[ \text{New concentration of HCl} = \frac{0.1}{2} = 0.05 \, \text{M H}^+ \] \[ \text{New concentration of H}_2\text{SO}_4 = \frac{0.4}{2} = 0.2 \, \text{M H}^+ \] The total H+ concentration is: \[ 0.05 \, \text{M} + 0.2 \, \text{M} = 0.25 \, \text{M} \]


Question 25:

The correct order of boiling points of the given aqueous solutions is:

Options:

  1. 1 N KNO3 > 1 N NaCl > 1 N CH3COOH > 1 N sucrose
  2. 1 N KNO3 = 1 N NaCl > 1 N CH3COOH > 1 N sucrose
  3. Same for all
  4. 1 N KNO3 = 1 N NaCl = 1 N CH3COOH > 1 N sucrose
Correct Answer: 2. 1 N KNO3 = 1 N NaCl > 1 N CH3COOH > 1 N sucrose
View Solution

The boiling point elevation is a colligative property, which depends on the number of solute particles in the solution:

  • KNO3: Strong electrolyte, dissociates into 2 ions (K+ and NO3-).
  • NaCl: Strong electrolyte, dissociates into 2 ions (Na+ and Cl-).
  • CH3COOH: Weak electrolyte, partially dissociates into CH3COO- and H+ ions.
  • Sucrose: Non-electrolyte, does not dissociate.
Since strong electrolytes like KNO3 and NaCl produce more particles in solution compared to weak electrolytes like CH3COOH and non-electrolytes like sucrose, the order of boiling points is: \[ \text{1 N KNO}_3 = \text{1 N NaCl} > \text{1 N CH}_3\text{COOH} > \text{1 N sucrose}. \]

Question 26:

Correct solubility order of AgF, AgCl, AgBr, AgI in water is:

Options:

  1. AgF < AgCl > AgBr > AgI
  2. AgI < AgBr < AgCl < AgF
  3. AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI
  4. AgCl > AgBr > AgF > AgI
Correct Answer: 2. AgI < AgBr < AgCl < AgF
View Solution

The solubility of silver halides in water decreases as the size of the halide ion increases. This is because:

  • Larger halide ions (e.g., I-) have lower lattice energy compared to smaller halide ions (e.g., F-).
  • The lattice energy dominates over the hydration energy, making the solubility lower for larger ions.
Therefore, the solubility order is: \[ \text{AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI}. \]


Question 27:

What will be the change in acidity if: (i) CuSO4 is added to saturated (NH4)2SO4 solution, (ii) SbF5 is added to anhydrous HF?

Options:

  1. Increases, Increases
  2. Decreases, Decreases
  3. Increases, Decreases
  4. Decreases, Increases
Correct Answer: 1. Increases, Increases
View Solution

Part (i): CuSO4 added to saturated (NH4)2SO4 solution
When CuSO4 is added to a saturated solution of (NH4)2SO4, it introduces Cu2+ ions into the solution. Cu2+ is a Lewis acid and reacts with water, increasing the concentration of H+ ions. This reaction results in an increase in acidity: \[ \text{Cu}^{2+} + H_2O \rightarrow \text{[Cu(H$_2$O)$_6$]}^{2+} \rightarrow \text{[Cu(H$_2$O)$_5$(OH)]}^+ + H^+ \] Part (ii): SbF5 added to anhydrous HF
SbF5 is a strong Lewis acid and forms the superacid HF-SbF5 when mixed with HF. This combination greatly increases the acidity of the solution as it stabilizes the fluoride ion (F-), shifting the equilibrium towards producing more H+ ions: \[ \text{HF} + \text{SbF}_5 \rightarrow \text{HSbF}_6 + \text{H}^+ \]
In both cases, the acidity of the system increases. Thus, the correct answer is:
\[ \boxed{\text{Increases, Increases.}} \]


Question 28:

Which of the following contains the maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom?

Options:

  1. ClO3-
  2. XeF4
  3. SF4
  4. I3-
Correct Answer: 4. I3-
View Solution

- ClO3-: Central Cl atom has 1 lone pair.
- XeF4: Central Xe atom has 2 lone pairs.
- SF4: Central S atom has 1 lone pair.
- I3-: Central I atom has 3 lone pairs.

Thus, I3- has the maximum number of lone pairs (3) on its central atom.


Question 29:

Number of moles of ions produced by the complete dissociation of one mole of Mohr's salt in water is:

Options:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Correct Answer: 3. 5
View Solution

Mohr's salt, chemically known as ammonium iron(II) sulfate, has the formula \((NH_4)_2[Fe(SO_4)_2] \cdot 6H_2O\).
When dissolved in water, it dissociates completely as follows: \[ (NH_4)_2[Fe(SO_4)_2] \cdot 6H_2O \rightarrow 2 \text{NH}_4^+ + \text{Fe}^{2+} + 2 \text{SO}_4^{2-} \] From this dissociation, the ions produced are:

  • 2 NH4+ (ammonium ions),
  • 1 Fe2+ (iron(II) ion),
  • 2 SO42- (sulfate ions).
Adding these, the total number of moles of ions produced from one mole of Mohr's salt is: \[ 2 + 1 + 2 = 5 \, \text{moles of ions.} \]


Question 30:

Which of the following species exhibits both LMCT and paramagnetism?

Options:

  1. MnO4-
  2. MnO42-
  3. Cr2O72-
  4. CrO42-
Correct Answer: 2. MnO42-
View Solution

Ligand-to-Metal Charge Transfer (LMCT): LMCT occurs when there is a transfer of electrons from the ligand (oxygen) to the metal ion (Mn or Cr).
Paramagnetism: Paramagnetic species have unpaired electrons in their electronic configuration.

Analysis of the given species:

  • MnO4-: Mn is in the +7 oxidation state with no unpaired electrons (3d0). This species shows LMCT but is diamagnetic.
  • MnO42-: Mn is in the +6 oxidation state with one unpaired electron (3d1). This species exhibits both LMCT and paramagnetism.
  • Cr2O72-: Cr is in the +6 oxidation state with no unpaired electrons (3d0). This species is diamagnetic and shows LMCT.
  • CrO42-: Cr is also in the +6 oxidation state with no unpaired electrons. This species shows LMCT but is diamagnetic.
Thus, only MnO42- exhibits both LMCT and paramagnetism.

Question 31:

How many P–O–P linkages are there in P4O10?

Options:

  1. Six
  2. Four
  3. Five
  4. One
Correct Answer: 1. Six
View Solution

The structure of P4O10 is based on four phosphorus atoms forming a tetrahedron with oxygen atoms bridging between them. There are six P–O–P linkages in the molecule.


Question 32:

Q and R in the reaction sequences are respectively:

Reaction Diagram

Options:

  1. Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/OH-; B2H6, H2O2/OH-
  2. B2H6, H2O2/OH-; H+/H2O
  3. Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/OH-; H+/H2O
  4. B2H6, H2O2/OH-; Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/OH-
Correct Answer: 4. B2H6, H2O2/OH-; Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/OH-
View Solution

The reaction sequence involves:

  • Hydroboration-Oxidation: B2H6, H2O2/OH- adds water across the double bond with anti-Markovnikov regioselectivity.
  • Oxymercuration-Demercuration: Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/OH- adds water across the double bond with Markovnikov regioselectivity.


Question 33:

pH of 10-8 M HCl solution is:

Options:

  1. 8
  2. Greater than 7, less than 8
  3. Greater than 8
  4. Greater than 6, less than 7
Correct Answer: 4. Greater than 6, less than 7
View Solution

The concentration of HCl is 10-8 M. Since HCl is a strong acid, the [H+] from HCl is 10-8 M. However, the autoionization of water also contributes [H+] = 10-7 M. Therefore, the total [H+] is: \[ \text{Total [H$^+$]} = 10^{-8} + 10^{-7} \approx 1.1 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{M}. \] The pH is given by: \[ \text{pH} = -\log [\text{H}^+] \approx -\log (1.1 \times 10^{-7}) \approx 6.96. \] Thus, the pH is greater than 6 and less than 7.


Question 34:

The degree of dissociation of acetic acid is:

Options:

  1. 0.021
  2. 0.21
  3. 0.012
  4. 0.12
Correct Answer: 1. 0.021
View Solution

Given:

  • k = 1.65 × 10-4 S cm-1,
  • C = 0.02 M,
  • λ°H+ = 349.1 S cm2 mol-1,
  • λ°CH3COO- = 40.9 S cm2 mol-1.
  1. Calculate Λm: \[ \Lambda_m = \frac{k}{C} = \frac{1.65 \times 10^{-4}}{0.02} = 0.00825 \, \text{S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$}. \]
  2. Calculate Λ°: \[ \Lambda^\circ = \lambda^\circ_\text{H$^+$} + \lambda^\circ_\text{CH$_3$COO$^-$} = 349.1 + 40.9 = 390 \, \text{S cm$^2$ mol$^{-1}$}. \]
  3. Calculate α: \[ \alpha = \frac{\Lambda_m}{\Lambda^\circ} = \frac{0.00825}{390} \approx 0.021. \]


Question 35:

The number(s) of -OH group(s) present in H3PO3 and H3PO4 is/are:

Options:

  1. 3 and 3 respectively
  2. 3 and 4 respectively
  3. 2 and 3 respectively
  4. 1 and 3 respectively
Correct Answer: 3. 2 and 3 respectively
View Solution

  • H3PO3: Contains two -OH groups and one H atom directly bonded to P.
  • H3PO4: Contains three -OH groups and one P=O bond.

Question 36:

Which of the following statements about the SN2 reaction mechanism is/are true?

Options:

  1. The rate of reaction increases with increasing nucleophilicity.
  2. The number 2 denotes a second-order reaction.
  3. Tertiary butyl substrates do not follow this mechanism.
  4. The optical rotation of substrates always changes from (+) to (-) or from (-) to (+) in the products.
Correct Answer: 1, 2, 3
View Solution

The SN2 reaction mechanism is a bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction characterized by:

  • A single step where the nucleophile attacks the electrophilic carbon and the leaving group departs simultaneously.
  • Statement 1: True. The reaction rate depends on the concentration of both the nucleophile and the substrate, and hence increases with increasing nucleophilicity.
  • Statement 2: True. The "2" in SN2 indicates that the reaction is second-order, dependent on two reactants.
  • Statement 3: True. Tertiary substrates do not follow the SN2 mechanism due to steric hindrance.
  • Statement 4: False. Optical rotation may change, but it is not guaranteed to shift from (+) to (-) or vice versa, as this depends on the specific nucleophile and substrate.


Question 37:

Which of the following represent(s) the enantiomer of Y?

Structure of Y

Options:

  1. Option A
  2. Option B
  3. Option C
  4. Option D
Correct Answer:Image 2, 3
View Solution

To identify the enantiomer of Y, we need to find structures that are mirror images of Y but non-superimposable.

  • Option A: Not a mirror image of Y.
  • Option B: Matches the mirror image of Y.
  • Option C: Matches the mirror image of Y.
  • Option D: Identical to Y, not an enantiomer.
Thus, options B and C are enantiomers of Y.


Question 38:

Identify the correct statement(s):

Options:

  1. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is +6.
  2. ΔH > ΔU for the reaction N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g), provided both gases behave ideally.
  3. pH of 0.1 N H2SO4 is less than that of 0.1 N HCl at 25°C.
  4. RT/F = 0.0591 V at 25°C.
Correct Answer: (1), (2)
View Solution

  • (1): Correct. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is +6.
  • (2): Correct. For the reaction, ΔH > ΔU because Δng > 0.
  • (3): Incorrect. The pH of 0.1 N H2SO4 is slightly higher than 0.1 N HCl due to incomplete dissociation.
  • (4): Incorrect. RT/F = 0.0257 V at 25°C, not 0.0591 V.


Question 39:

Which of the following ion/ions is/are diamagnetic?

Options:

  1. [CoF6]3-
  2. [Co(NH3)6]3+
  3. [Fe(OH2)6]2+
  4. [Fe(CN)6]4-
Correct Answer: 2, 4
View Solution

  • [CoF6]3-: Paramagnetic due to high-spin configuration.
  • [Co(NH3)6]3+: Diamagnetic due to low-spin configuration with NH3.
  • [Fe(OH2)6]2+: Paramagnetic due to unpaired electrons.
  • [Fe(CN)6]4-: Diamagnetic due to low-spin configuration with CN-.


Question 40:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Options:

  1. Solid I2 is freely soluble in water.
  2. Solid I2 is freely soluble in water but only in the presence of excess KI.
  3. Solid I2 is freely soluble in CCl4.
  4. Solid I2 is freely soluble in hot water.
Correct Answer: 2, 3
View Solution

  • Statement 1: False. Solid I2 is only slightly soluble in water.
  • Statement 2: True. I2 dissolves in water in the presence of KI due to I3- complex formation.
  • Statement 3: True. I2 is freely soluble in non-polar solvents like CCl4.
  • Statement 4: False. Solubility increases in hot water, but I2 is not freely soluble.



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