CUET Legal Studies Question Paper 2024: Download Question paper with Answers PDF

Question 1:

In the 1950s, the Supreme Court's vision in the Constitution of India included:

• (1) One Chief Justice and 7 Judges
• (2) One Chief Justice and 11 Judges
• (3) One Chief Justice and 15 Judges
• (4) One Chief Justice and 30 Judges

Question 2:

Which of the following bodies/institutions is authorized to interpret the Constitution?

• (1) Rajya Sabha (Council of States)
• (2) Supreme Court
• (3) Lok Sabha (House of the People)
• (4) President of India

Question 3:

In the Constitution of India, the provision for the division of powers between the Parliament and the State with respect to matters listed in the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List is in Article _________.

• (1) 253
• (2) 246
• (3) 368
• (4) 300

Question 4:

The difference between movable and immovable property was interpreted in which of the following cases?

• (1) Cooper V/S Cooper
• (2) Madam Pillai V/S Badar Kali
• (3) Gajadhar V/S Rombhai
• (4) Shanta Bai V/S State of Bombay

Question 5:

In which case did Justice P.N. Bhagwati state that, "An enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry poses a potential threat to the health and safety of those working in the factory and those residing in the surrounding areas and, therefore, must have ‘strict liability’”?

• (1) Donoghue V/S Stevenson
• (2) Carli V/S Carbolic Smoke Ball Company
• (3) M.C. Mehta V/S Shri Ram Food and Fertilizer
• (4) Kasturi Lal Nath V/S U. O. I. (Union of India)

Question 6:

Who among the following is NOT competent to contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? List of individuals is given below:

(A) An adult (a person of more than 18 years of age)
(B) Foreign Sovereign
(C) Lunatic
(D) Idiot

Choose the correct combination that reflects the individuals who are NOT competent to contract.

• (1) Only A, B, C
• (2) Only A, C, D
• (3) Only B, C, D
• (4) A, B, C, D

Question 7:

Which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, relates to the "Doctrine of Election"?

• (1) Section 30
• (2) Section 32
• (3) Section 35
• (4) Section 39

Question 8:

Which of the following is a constitutional body?

• (1) National Human Rights Commission
• (2) National Commission for Minorities
• (3) National Commission for Women
• (4) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Question 9:

'The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a special officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes, who shall report to the President'. Choose the correct Article mentioned below -

• (1) Article 135
• (2) Article 368
• (3) Article 338
• (4) Article 268

Question 10:

Name the first Act that initiated the legal profession in India -

• (1) Mayor's Court
• (2) Bar Council of India
• (3) Regulating Act 1773
• (4) Legal Practitioners Act of 1846

Question 11:

Which organization, as a body, conducts the qualifying examination for Advocate on Record (Advocate on Record) ?

• (1) Bar Council of India
• (2) State Bar Council
• (3) High Court
• (4) Supreme Court

Question 12:

Which Constitution Amendment inserted Article 39-A into the Constitution of India?

• (1) Amendment of 1976
• (2) Amendment of 1977
• (3) Amendment of 1978
• (4) Amendment of 1979

Question 13:

Which of the following is NOT a plea-preliminary service?

• (1) Witness testimony
• (2) Legal advice
• (3) Legal education
• (4) Legal awareness

Question 14:

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for equal justice and free legal aid?

• (1) Article 23
• (2) Article 14
• (3) Article 30
• (4) Article 39A

Question 15:

The National Judicial Academy is located here -

• (1) Delhi
• (2) Bhopal
• (3) Patna
• (4) Kolkata

Question 16:

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution determines the procedure for the appointment of judges in the Supreme Court?

• (1) Article 35
• (2) Article 110
• (3) Article 124
• (4) Article 142

Question 17:

'Presidential Reference' word usage pertains to which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

• (1) Original Jurisdiction
• (2) Appellate Jurisdiction
• (3) Writ Jurisdiction
• (4) Advisory Jurisdiction

Question 18:

Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue Writs/Mandamus?

• (1) Article 14
• (2) Article 21
• (3) Article 32
• (4) Article 226

Question 19:

'P' has invented an Artificial Intelligence tool that prevents road accidents in the city. It can be protected as:

• (1) Design
• (2) Copyright
• (3) Patent
• (4) Trademark

Question 20:

'Restitutio in integrum' court places injured party in which of the following condition had breach not happened.

• (1) Principle of Justice
• (2) Principle of Subrogation
• (3) Lease Pendents / Pending Suit Doctrine
• (4) Principle of Election

Question 21:

Which of the following options will NOT relieve the party from all its obligations under the contract?

• (1) Outbreak of war
• (2) Merger
• (3) Death of any party
• (4) Failure to Perform

Question 22:

Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for the provision of damages in case of breach of contract?

• (1) Section 73
• (2) Section 56
• (3) Section 80
• (4) Section 82

Question 23:

Which of the following is NOT a method of Alternative Dispute Resolution?

• (1) Arbitration
• (2) Mediation
• (3) Conciliation
• (4) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

Question 24:

Aspiring law candidates give different entrance exams to get admission in law colleges. Which of the following combinations correctly represents the entrance exam for admission to the National Law Universities (NLU’s / NLUs) in a well manner ?

(A) Combined Law Admission Test (CLAT)
(B) Law School Admission Test (LSAT)
(C) All India Law Entrance Test (AILET)
(D) All India Bar Examination (AIBE)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) Only A
• (2) Only A and C
• (3) Only C
• (4) A, B, C and D

Question 25:

The Fundamental Right to Education is available to children of which age group?

• (1) 7-14 years
• (2) 10-14 years
• (3) 9-14 years
• (4) 6-14 years

Question 26:

Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the Parliament enact the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987?

• (1) Article 38
• (2) Article 39-A
• (3) Article 40
• (4) Article 41

Question 27:

Match list I with list II

List I: List of Agreements/Treaties

(A) Vienna Declaration and Program of Action
(B) United Nations Commission on International Trade Law
(C) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(D) General Agreement on Trade in Service

List II: Purpose

(I) Intervention provided on domestic laws
(II) United Nations High Commission on human rights
(III) Liberating in the legal services
(IV) Access to Justice and free legal help Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (А) - (III), (В) - (II), (С) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 28:

Match list I with list II

List I:
(A) Rights of accused to against offences
(B) Right to life and personal liberty
(C) Rights of Minorities to establish and administer their educational institutions
(D) Right to education

List II:
(I) Article 30
(II) Article 21A
(III) Article 21
(IV) Article 20

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (А) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 29:

Match list I with list II

List I:

(A) Donoghue V/S Stevenson
(B) M.C. Mehta V/S Sri Ram Food and Fertilizers
(C) Intention and cause
(D) Intention of causing the use of a personal mobile property

List II:

(I) Full liability
(II) Transgression of use the mobile ownership
(III) Duty of care
(IV) Tort of Attack Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (А) - (III), (В) - (I), (С) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Question 30:

Match list I with list II

List I:

(A)Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
(B) Special Leave Petition
(C) Writ jurisdiction
(D) Appellete Jurisdiction

List II:

(I) Section 132
(II) Section 32
(III) Section 131
(IV) Section 136

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (А) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (1)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Question 31:

Match list I with list II

List I:

(A) The freedom of the Self
(B) Prohibition of torture
(C) Right to Social Security
(D) Equality before the law

List II:

(I) Section 25 (U.D.H.R)
(II) Section 3 (U.D.H.R)
(III) Section 5 (U.D.H.R)
(IV) Section 7 (U.D.H.R)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) (A) - (II), (В) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (I), (В) - (II), (С) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (А) - (III), (В) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Question 32:

Which of the following is not correct about the partnership firm?

• (1) a Partnership firm and its partner are two separate entities in the eyes of law
• (2) There must be least 2 partners to form a partnership firm
• (3) Registration of partnership firm is not compulsory
• (4) The partners shares profit in mutually agreed proportion

Question 33:

Arrange the following cases in ascending order of their decision by the Supreme Court of India. Choose the case given first and then the second, and so on:

(A) Konkan Railway Corporation Limited V/S Mehul Construction Company
(B) Afcons Infra Limited V/S Cherian Varkey Construction Limited
(C) Kesavananda Bharati V/S State of Kerala
(D) M. H. Hoskot V/S State of Maharashtra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) C, D, B, A
• (2) C, D, A, B
• (3) D, C, A, B
• (4) C, A, D, B

Question 34:

Arrange the following Acts in the ascending order of their enactment. Put the first enacted Act first, and so on -

(A) The Registration of Foreigners Act
(B) The Protection of Civil Rights Act
(C) The Passports Act of India
(D) The Arms Act Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) A, B, D, C
• (2) A, C, D, B
• (3) B, A, D, C
• (4) B, D, A, C

Question 35:

Arrange the following Courts in ascending order according to their establishment:

(A) Supreme Court of Judicature, Calcutta
(B) Supreme Court of Judicature, Bombay
(C) Mayor's Court
(D) Supreme Court of Judicature, Madras Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) C, A, D, B
• (2) C, A, B, D
• (3) A, B, D, C
• (4) A, C, D, B

Question 36:

Arrange the steps of the trial in their correct order and choose the right ascending order

(A) Warrant Case
(B) Statement of the Accused
(C) Recording of Evidence on behalf of the prosecution
(D) Framing the Charge Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) A, B, D, C
• (2) A, D, C, В
• (3) C, D, A, В
• (4) B, C, A, D

Question 37:

All crimes must have the two essential elements:

• (1) Intent and motive
• (2) Crime and motive
• (3) Mental and physical element
• (4) Quick anger and revenge

Question 38:

Who can transfer immovable property?

(A) One who is capable
(B) One who is authorized
(C) One who has not been declared ineligible by the society
(D) He who has a mental disorder
(E) One who has not been declared ineligible by law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) Only (A), (B) and (D)
• (2) Only (A), (B) and (E)
• (3) Only (C), (D) and (E)
• (4) Only (A), (B), (C) and (E)

Question 39:

Which of the following is a source of international law?

(A) International custom
(B) International Convention
(C) Internal / local legislation
(D) General Principles of Law recognized by civilized nations
(E) International trade practices Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) Only (A), (B), (C) and (D)
• (2) Only (A), (B) and (D)
• (3) Only (A), (B) and (E)
• (4) Only (A), (B) (D) and (E)

Question 40:

Arrange the following international institutions according to their year of establishment.

(A) League of Nations
(B) International Committee of the Red Cross
(C) United Nations
(D) International Law Union
(E) World Health Organisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

• (1) B, D, A, C, E
• (2) A, B, D, E, C
• (3) C, D, A, B, E
• (4) B, E, A, C, D

परिच्छेद को पढ़ें और प्रश्नों का उत्तर दें -

2010 में, भारत के राष्ट्रीय कानूनी सेवा प्राधिकरण (एन.ए.एल.एस.ए. / NALSA) ने कानूनी सेवा प्राधिकरण अधिनियम, 1987 की धारा 29 के तहत अपनी शक्ति का प्रयोग करते हुए राष्ट्रीय कानूनी सेवा प्राधिकरण (निःशुल्क और सक्षम कानूनी सेवा) विनियमों को अपनाया। ये विनियम सर्वोच्च न्यायालय, उच्च न्यायालय, राज्य, जिले और तालुका की कानूनी सेवा समितियों पर लागू होते हैं।

निम्नलिखित में से किस मामले में भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 21 के तहत प्रक्रिया का क्या अर्थ है, इस पर स्पष्टता प्रदान की गई है?

• (1) रूपा हुर्रा V/S अशोक हुर्रा
• (2) एम. सी. मेहता V/S भारत संघ
• (3) मेनका गांधी V/S भारत संघ
• (4) रे बेरुबारी मामले में

Question 42:

परिच्छेद को पढ़ें और प्रश्न के उत्तर दें -

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानवाधिकार, अंतर्राष्ट्रीय कानून के ढांचे के तहत विभिन्न प्रकार के सवाल खड़े करते हैं। मानवाधिकारों के प्रवर्तन और कार्रवाई के संबंध में विभिन्न समस्याएं हैं। मानवाधिकार कानून के विकास पर द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध का गहरा प्रभाव पड़ा क्योंकि मानवाधिकारों के संरक्षण के लिए एक प्रणाली की आवश्यकता थी । इससे सक्रियतावाद और साहित्य में व्यापक उछाल आया। नागरिक और राजनीतिक अधिकारों पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन (आई. सी. सी. पी. आर. / ICCPR) के अनुच्छेद 4 में कहा गया है कि जीवन का अधिकार, विचार की स्वतंत्रता, दासता का निषेध आदि जैसे निश्चित अधिकार हैं, जिनमें कटौती नहीं की जा सकती ।

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा निकाय मानवाधिकार सम्बन्धी मुद्दों को देखता है?

• (1) संयुक्त राष्ट्र संगठन
• (2) सुरक्षा परिषद
• (3) उच्चायुक्त
• (4) मानवाधिकार परिषद

Question 43:

परिच्छेद को पढ़ें और प्रश्न के उत्तर दें -

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानवाधिकार, अंतर्राष्ट्रीय कानून के ढांचे के तहत विभिन्न प्रकार के सवाल खड़े करते हैं। मानवाधिकारों के प्रवर्तन और कार्रवाई के संबंध में विभिन्न समस्याएं हैं। मानवाधिकार कानून के विकास पर द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध का गहरा प्रभाव पड़ा क्योंकि मानवाधिकारों के संरक्षण के लिए एक प्रणाली की आवश्यकता थी । इससे सक्रियतावाद और साहित्य में व्यापक उछाल आया। नागरिक और राजनीतिक अधिकारों पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन (आई. सी. सी. पी. आर. / ICCPR) के अनुच्छेद 4 में कहा गया है कि जीवन का अधिकार, विचार की स्वतंत्रता, दासता का निषेध आदि जैसे निश्चित अधिकार हैं, जिनमें कटौती नहीं की जा सकती ।

'दायित्व', कुछ उल्लंघन इतने गंभीर हैं कि कोई भी राज्य ऐसे अपराधों के खिलाफ कार्रवाई कर सकता है, यह कहलाता है

• (1) सामान्य दायित्व
• (2) राज्य दायित्व
• (3) एर्गा ओमनेस / सभी के प्रति दायित्व
• (4) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय दायित्व

Question 44:

परिच्छेद को पढ़ें और प्रश्न के उत्तर दें -

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानवाधिकार, अंतर्राष्ट्रीय कानून के ढांचे के तहत विभिन्न प्रकार के सवाल खड़े करते हैं। मानवाधिकारों के प्रवर्तन और कार्रवाई के संबंध में विभिन्न समस्याएं हैं। मानवाधिकार कानून के विकास पर द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध का गहरा प्रभाव पड़ा क्योंकि मानवाधिकारों के संरक्षण के लिए एक प्रणाली की आवश्यकता थी । इससे सक्रियतावाद और साहित्य में व्यापक उछाल आया। नागरिक और राजनीतिक अधिकारों पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन (आई. सी. सी. पी. आर. / ICCPR) के अनुच्छेद 4 में कहा गया है कि जीवन का अधिकार, विचार की स्वतंत्रता, दासता का निषेध आदि जैसे निश्चित अधिकार हैं, जिनमें कटौती नहीं की जा सकती ।

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समान ढांचे के अनुसार यातना, नरसंहार और दासता का निषेध इस ढांचे के अंतर्गत आता है -

• (1) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय कानून के सामान्य सिद्धांत
• (2) राष्ट्रीय न्यायालयों के निर्णय
• (3) प्रथागत अंतर्राष्ट्रीय कानून
• (4) आर्थिक और सामाजिक परिषद

Question 45:

परिच्छेद को पढ़ें और प्रश्न के उत्तर दें -

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानवाधिकार, अंतर्राष्ट्रीय कानून के ढांचे के तहत विभिन्न प्रकार के सवाल खड़े करते हैं। मानवाधिकारों के प्रवर्तन और कार्रवाई के संबंध में विभिन्न समस्याएं हैं। मानवाधिकार कानून के विकास पर द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध का गहरा प्रभाव पड़ा क्योंकि मानवाधिकारों के संरक्षण के लिए एक प्रणाली की आवश्यकता थी । इससे सक्रियतावाद और साहित्य में व्यापक उछाल आया। नागरिक और राजनीतिक अधिकारों पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन (आई. सी. सी. पी. आर. / ICCPR) के अनुच्छेद 4 में कहा गया है कि जीवन का अधिकार, विचार की स्वतंत्रता, दासता का निषेध आदि जैसे निश्चित अधिकार हैं, जिनमें कटौती नहीं की जा सकती ।

मानवाधिकारों की सार्वभौमिक घोषणा एक है -

• (1) बाध्यकारी दस्तावेज़
• (2) गैर-बाध्यकारी दस्तावेज़
• (3) अनिवार्य दस्तावेज़
• (4) राष्ट्रीय दस्तावेज़

Question 46:

In 2010, the National Legal Services Authority of India (N.A.L.S.A. / NALSA) adopted the National Legal Services Authority (Free and Competent Legal Service) Regulations, by exercising its power under section 29 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. These Regulations apply to the Legal Service Committees of the Supreme Court, High Court, State, District and Taluka.

The 1987 Legal Services Authority Act has the following provisions -

• (1) Free Ration
• (2) Free Primary treatment
• (3) Free legal aid to all sections
• (4) Free legal aid to some sections

Question 47:

In 2010, the National Legal Services Authority of India (N.A.L.S.A. / NALSA) adopted the National Legal Services Authority (Free and Competent Legal Service) Regulations, by exercising its power under section 29 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. These Regulations apply to the Legal Service Committees of the Supreme Court, High Court, State, District and Taluka.

Free legal aid is provided to ensure -

• (1) growth
• (2) wisdom
• (3) temperature
  (4) justice

Question 48:

In 2010, the National Legal Services Authority of India (N.A.L.S.A. / NALSA) adopted the National Legal Services Authority (Free and Competent Legal Service) Regulations, by exercising its power under section 29 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. These Regulations apply to the Legal Service Committees of the Supreme Court, High Court, State, District and Taluka.

The victim of which of the following circumstances is not entitled to free legal aid?

• (1) Prosperities
• (2) Ethnic Violence
• (3) earthquake
• (4) Caste atrocities

Question 49:

In 2010, the National Legal Services Authority of India (N.A.L.S.A. / NALSA) adopted the National Legal Services Authority (Free and Competent Legal Service) Regulations, by exercising its power under section 29 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. These Regulations apply to the Legal Service Committees of the Supreme Court, High Court, State, District and Taluka.

The panel of legal professionals to give legal assistance provided by the State shall be prepared by -

• (1) By the Attorney General of India
• (2) By the Working President of the Legal Service Institution
• (3) By the member secretary of the Legal Service Institution
• (4) By the President of the Bar Association

Question 50:

In 2010, the National Legal Services Authority of India (N.A.L.S.A. / NALSA) adopted the National Legal Services Authority (Free and Competent Legal Service) Regulations, by exercising its power under section 29 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. These Regulations apply to the Legal Service Committees of the Supreme Court, High Court, State, District and Taluka.

In which of the following cases has clarity been provided on what is the meaning of procedure under article 21 of the Constitution of India?

• (1) Rupa Hurra V/S Ashok Hurra
• (2) M. C. Mehta V/S Union of India
• (3) Maneka Gandhi V/S Union of India
• (4) Re Berubari case me